top of page
Forum Posts
Dominic Foo
Aug 08, 2024
In Apologetics
...for what can be clearer and more obvious, when we have lifted our eyes to the sky, and have gazed upon the heavenly bodies, than that there exists some divine power of exalted intelligence by which these are ruled?
Cicero: On the Nature of the Gods
“What are you looking at?” she asks. What am I looking at? My future wife? The mother of my children? The person I was put on this earth to find? Yes.”
Peter Wentz: Gray
I decided to compile and organise in one essay my years of reflections on theistic apologetics, the topic of "proving" the existence of God, and the approach I've settled on today. These reflections meanders through all kinds and fields of philosophical and theological topics, epistemology, psychology, philosophy of mind, nature, even Taoism, but over the years I've found my views here more or less settled and stable and don't feel the need to revisit or substantially revise them.
That said, the title of my essay, conceptual instruments and guides for perceiving the existence of God, may raise some eyebrows, and is very different from the usual "evidence" or "proofs" for the existence of God. To understand this approach we will need to lay some epistemic groundwork and foundation for this discussion.
Epistemic Standards?
It is usual to speak of standards of evidence and of proof, as if there were a measurable yardstick for determining the amount and weight of evidence, which then passes some sort of threshold to pass as "knowledge" before you can be said to be justified or know something. These are of course physical metaphors, if you ask how hot water needs to be before it boils, there is a definite number, 100 degrees Celsius. How much energy would be enough to lift or move this object, etc.
Yet how can we translate these physical measurable metaphors into epistemic normative terms? How can we determine what constitutes "enough" evidence? These are weighty (!) epistemological questions, but which I do not intend to enter. I will simply state my own position outright: these standards are a complete fiction summoned entirely out of the thin air, I am generally against the idea of epistemic normativity, as if there were some invisible ruler or measure of "amount" or "weight" of evidence with even more ethereal "thresholds" for evidence, we should not be misled by metaphors we cannot cash in in literal terms. I am more of an epistemic naturalist or view knowing as a causative affair, certain perceptions, arguments, or ideas cause you or motivate you to accept a proposition as true.
Although I do not intend to enter into a meta-epistemic argument about my position, to motivate (!) my position I would simply use a parallel field. We are familiar with the phrase "proof beyond a reasonable doubt" as a standard of evidence and proof in criminal trials. Before a jury can convict a person of a crime, potentially committing a person to a lifetime in prison or even death, the prosecutor has to prove his guilt "beyond a reasonable doubt". It is of interest that of late his formula has fallen into disfavour in English courts. The following is taken from a law of evidence textbook:
This formulation [beyond reasonable doubt] fell into some disfavour for a time because of supposed difficulties of explaining to juries the nature of reasonable doubt, if they experienced problems of understanding. Expressions intended to be helpful, but of questionable value, such as, ‘a reasonable doubt is one for which you could give reasons if asked’ found disfavour in the higher courts and led to some successful appeals against conviction. As a result, a second formulation gained wide favour.
(b) ‘Satisfied so that you feel sure’ (or more simply ‘sure of guilt’). This formulation was advocated by Lord Goddard CJ in Summers, when he said:
If a jury is told that it is their duty to regard the evidence and see that it satisfies them so that they can feel sure when they return a verdict of guilty, that is much better than using the expression ‘reasonable doubt’ and I hope in future that that will be done.
Richard Glover, Peter Murphy: Murphy on Evidence, Thirteenth Edition (2013)
This would be my approach. I would not be approaching this question of perceiving God's existence in terms of some ephemeral "standards" of reasonableness floating "out there", rather, in my discussions I would mention and refer to various ideas, concepts, suggestions, etc, which serve as pointers, telescopes and microscopes to guide you to see and perceive the reality of God for yourself, but they are not the thing itself to be seen, they merely point to the thing. It is then my hope that my pointing or demonstrative would so help you see the point I am trying to make such that it subjectively satisfies you and make you feel sure to "return a verdict" and accept the claim. If this method is "good enough" for the criminal law courts, where a person can be deprived of his or her freedom and even life, I believe that it should be good enough for our topic where the perception of the existence of God may very well lead to life-long changes to ourselves.
Here's another picture to help you see (!) the epistemic method here. Suppose we were in a forest or jungle searching for an obscure animal, or playing a game of Where's Wally, and then suppose I spot the animal or Wally and say, there it is! And then you ask where? All I can do is to point or guide your perception to where the animal or Wally's at. "The animal is under the tree with some yellow leaves, besides the blueberry shrubs." My discussion here would be highly analogous to pointing out where the animal is, I will help direct and focus your attention to aid you perceive and find the animal, but in the end, you have to look and see for yourself. My pointing and guides are not evidence of the existence of the animal in the sense of satisfying some standard, they are just tools and instruments to help you see. Galileo before complained that some of the philosophers who opposed him refused to look into the telescope to see his claims for themselves. I can provide the "telescope", the guide and "conceptual instruments" to help you see, but in the end, you have to look into the telescope yourself, and you would be right that the mere telescope or tool doesn't by itself constitute "evidence" for my claims.
Different Instruments for Different Things
As the issue of epistemology and methods are so deeply entangled with traditional theistic apologetics, I believe it necessary to continue clearing away from the epistemic assumptions we will have in approaching this question before we actually enter into it proper.
If we continue the metaphor of telescopes, we have no problems understanding that different entities require different instruments for perception. We use telescopes for the stars and microscopes for organisms. It is obvious then that the method for perceiving and understanding a claim depends on the contents and nature of the claim. To establish that the shortest distance between two points is a straight line in geometry would be very different from establishing that water boils at 100 degrees, the existence of electrons, and that of Napoleon. It would be in vain to attempt to establish mathematical propositions by attempting to measure every straight line in existence to determine that they are the shortest, or to conduct a repeatable experiment to verify that Napoleon once existed, it is not like we can create a parallel earth and run the history and see if Napoleon pops up, like performing a chemical reaction to see if a compound is produced.
So before we can provide the tools for perceiving the divine existence, we have to know what we are looking for in the first place, and what sort of thing God is.
Beginning with the Basics: God as a Cosmic Mind
Most traditional apologetics would begin with a definition of God which ascribes various omni-properties to Him, e.g. omnipotence, omnibenevolence, omniscience, eternality, infinite, etc, etc. Then having defined God as the whole package, there is the difficulty of how any evidence can possibly prove the whole package, along with substantive problems with the consistency of any individual property or with the package itself.
What I would propose here is something a lot more modest, and slower paced. I do not wish to embroil myself into substantive and controversial theses, say, concerning God's omnibenevolence, because "what is goodness?" itself is a landmine of philosophical controversies which I think it would be unwise to make as a precondition to settle before we can discuss God. (And in the interest of full disclosure, I am myself a theistic moral nihilist, so I would probably not accept 95% of most refined conceptions of omnibenevolence.)
Let's instead start with something a lot more basic: God is a mind, a "mind behind nature" or a mind "behind" the universe and cosmos, something along the lines of Cicero's quote at the start. This definition will be agnostic as to whether this mind is "benevolent", "evil", omnipotent, etc. We will attempt to bracket and segment as many questions and issues as possible.
Okay, so now we know what we are looking for, how can we go about looking for it?
Minds behind Bodies: Animals, Humans, and Nature
If we are talking about looking for a mind behind the body of the universe or nature, this highly suggests that the correct approach would be to see how we determine whether minds exists behind bodies in general. There are as such 2 issues at play here: (1) What exactly is a mind in the first place and (2) How can we tell that there is a mind behind a body? Do crabs, oysters, or trees have minds? How about ants, monkeys or fishes? Is there "the mind of the People" in some collective sense? Do A.I. or computers have minds? These are again substantive philosophical questions, which we obviously cannot enter into comprehensively, we will touch on certain points of them to move the discussion along, as long as it aids our perception, but we obviously cannot go into them in depth.
We will however begin with an extreme thought experiment to establish the "lower limits" of the discussion: there are two philosophical thought experiments of interest here: solipsism and the philosophical zombie. Solipsism is the thesis that only you have a mind, and no one else has it because you are literally incapable of telepathy and can't hear the thoughts of others. There is only your mind and that's it. (In the game Darktide, one of the psykers believes that he is in a dream and he is all alone, and everyone is simply part of his dream and have no minds.) A philosophical zombie is the idea that people are just meat machines, they have biologies and chemical reactions in their brains, but there is no consciousness or feeling or mind behind those eyes, they are mere zombies. A pure meat machine with no mind.
The following quotes from Tim Bayne's Philosophy of Mind: An Introduction and from the chapter "Chapter 11: Other Minds" would be particularly instructive. Bayne in the following quote addresses the "sceptical problem of other minds" which we just raised earlier:
We ordinarily assume that the individuals with whom we interact on a daily basis have minds, and that we know quite a bit about their mental lives. The sceptic, however, argues that these assumptions are unjustified, and that we know little (if anything) about the minds of others. Mindreading, according to the sceptic, is not a source of knowledge. Indeed, the radical sceptic argues that we don’t even have the capacity to form warranted beliefs about other minds.
[...]
There are two ways of engaging with the sceptical problem of other minds. The first aims to prove the sceptic wrong, and to demonstrate to the sceptic’s satisfaction that our ordinary mindreading methods deliver knowledge. In my view, this position is misguided, for it seems to me that we are justified in assuming that the sceptic is wrong. To my mind, a better way of engaging with the sceptical problem is to treat it as issuing a challenge regarding the nature of our knowledge of other minds. The aim, then, is not to prove that we have knowledge of the minds of our follow human beings, but to identify the basis of this knowledge.
His position and approach is directly isomorphic to the approach we will take here in how to perceive the divine mind. He refuses to start from the position of agnosticism of other minds and then proceed to justify our knowledge of it. He wants to just start from the assumption or presupposition that they are wrong, and his task isn't to justify the existence of other minds to the sceptic in the sense of providing "enough" evidence for their existence, but to simply explore what is the basis for claiming such a knowledge. We likewise approach the sceptical problem as merely a challenge to describe, not justify, how we come to know God, it is "not to prove that we have knowledge" of God by providing "enough" evidence, "but to identify the basis of this knowledge" and the methods for perceiving other minds, whether behind human bodies, monkeys, ants, trees or the whole universe.
The chapter's first main point is to discuss three different theories of "mindreading" or theories for how we come to know what other people are thinking. They are the "perceptual", that we can "see" the pain of others or "hear" their anger, "theory-theory", where we form a theory based on various data to explain their behaviour and postulate mental states, and finally, the "simulation" account, where we create a model of other people's mental states within our own minds and simulate in ourselves what the other person might be feeling. Thus, we imagine, "what would it be like to be such and such person under such and such scenario" and investigate in the "laboratory" of our own mind. He discusses the strengths and weaknesses of each account which I won't go into, however, there is no doubt that in reality we use all these three different methods for "knowing" what another person is thinking and feeling, none of them will be "decisive" or provide "enough evidence" of what another person is feeling or thinking, if at all. We do after all misunderstand people. But once more, the more instruments and methods we have for perceiving another mind, the larger our conceptual toolbox is for perceiving the divine mind. Let's now relate each of these methods to the divine mind.
The first is "perceptual" and that we can just directly "see" or "hear" people's feelings and emotions. If we assume that we can directly perceive people's emotions then clearly we have direct knowledge of other people's minds. However this parallels the religious experience/intuition claim of the theists. Some religious believers simply claim to directly perceive God in our hearts, their minds, or via ineffable prophetic visions. In our daily lives we often are so busy and interact with each other shallowly that we often do not spare a thought for how they are feeling or how their day have went, but when we focus our empathic perceptions as it were, we suddenly feel and see what other people are feeling, how tired they are, etc. Again, if we assume that people can directly perceive other people's emotions/the divine mind, then we have no problem on knowledge of minds, human and divine, in general. There are moments when we look at the sunset, or at the glory of nature and we focus, and somehow there is an ineffable perception of the divine mind behind it.
We shall move straight to the simulationist account because that's where he concentrates the weight of his arguments. Recall that the simulationist account argues that we "read" the minds of others by imagining or constructing a model of their mind in our own minds and simulating the results. By the simulationist account, we can know the existence of other minds by analogy and this has passed into the philosophical literature as the "analogical account". Thus, we infer the existence of other minds by analogy with our own, we argue that certain kinds of outward behaviour by other people should be associated with certain kinds of mental states because certain kinds of behaviour in our case are associated with certain kinds of mental states, etc. So my behaviour-mind connection should be analogous to yours. He proceeds to spend some time discussing various objections to this account and the counter arguments, etc.
However, at this stage, it should be pretty obvious that this is directly isomorphic to the "Watchmaker Analogy" argument for the divine design, that nature's order bears the marks of intelligence analogous to the ordering of certain materials into artefacts bearing the marks of human intelligence. So, in the philosophy of mind case, our own ordering of behaviour and outward actions bear the marks of certain mental states and emotions, ergo, by analogy, we can infer that other people's ordering of their actions and behaviour bears the marks of their mental states and emotion.
Before we go into the "theory-theory" account, I think here it would be useful to discuss the nature of this "organisation" and how it relates to "mind-like" qualities so that we know what we are theorising about.
The Mathematical Laws of Physics, Organisation and Minds
So far we have been discussing how to know or perceive other minds, but we have yet to address a much more fundamental question: what is a mind or consciousness? This is a philosophical mire which if we step into we will get sucked in pretty quickly. What I will instead do is to mention and discuss several theories of mind, which will illuminate the way towards perceiving the divine mind behind nature, regardless of which conceptual tool we in the end chose to accept as a true or proper account of the mind.
According to Daniel Dennett and other functionalists and reductionists about the mind, there is nothing so qualitatively special about human consciousness or human subjectivity, the mind just is a set of certain objective functional features, e.g. information processing system, cognitive capabilities, etc, which can be applied to anything which “performs the same functions” or “exhibits the same objective traits”, e.g. A.I. any other system which exhibits the same traits. Thus, consciousness is not a qualitative binary, yes or no, which someone, or something, possesses, it comes in various degrees and types which resembles each other in their complexity, extent, etc.
Functionalists use the term “multiple-realisability” to describe the idea that the same “mind-like” features or cognitive system can be “realised” or applied to many other different mediums or entities, other than humans. Thus, any information processing system which performs similar functions could be said to be a mind, they wouldn't be exactly like human minds (then again is any human mind exactly alike each other?), minds comes in various complexities, organisations and systems, but any sort of organised information processing would be a mind or at the very least, mind-like.
Now, does nature in fact exhibit such "organisation"? The very existence of mathematical laws of physics or laws of nature themselves are the informational organisation of nature. That the universe fits mathematical formulas itself seems to point or indicate a mind behind nature organising nature. In the words of Newton:
This most beautiful system of the sun, planets, and comets, could only proceed from the counsel and dominion of an intelligent and powerful Being. This Being governs all things, not as the soul of the world, but as Lord over all; and on account of his dominion he is wont to be called Lord God παντοκράτωρ, or Universal Ruler
This of course will lead down the next rabbit hole: what is mathematics and the nature of mathematical organisation, such that it points to a mind? Again, this is another mire we can only touch lightly without allowing ourselves to be dragged too deeply.
The first thing to note that any application of mathematics to physics is a contingent application, that is, it merely happens that a certain aspect of mathematics is applicable to some aspect of physical reality, but there is no real reason or necessity for the universe to so neatly conform to mathematical deduction. If we view mathematics as the creation and organisation of a mind (human or computer), then that the physical universe exhibit behaviour directly isomorphic to categories and organisations of the human mind is directly a mind-like quality.
There is an objection which may occur to this account. The objection goes, if mathematics is a product of the human mind, and if the human mind is a product of nature, then doesn't it stand to reason that it would make perfect sense for nature itself to evolve beings which would encodes its own mathematical structure into their minds and capable of grasping the mathematical structure of the universe? But this "objection" merely explains how we came to have the capacity to create mathematical structures, it still wouldn't explain how the universe itself came to bear these structures. Even if no humans evolved, and nature did not birth beings who could grasp its own structure, the laws of physics would still be what they were and there would still be the question as to why would the universe conform to these mental structures independently of the existence of anybody around to create those structures for them to grasp.
Remember, we are not operating on the premise that there is something magically or qualitatively special about human minds, our premise is that anything at an abstract level with similar structures, organisations, information processing systems, etc, would be a mind, whether we are talking about squids, computers, nature or humans. Thus, even if there were no humans, these organised mind-like qualities would still be there.
Laws of Nature and Systems
Here is another philosophical angle to look at this issue: what is a law of nature? What does it mean to speak of a law of nature, as if nature were organised into laws, rules and regulations?
If you look at the Stanford philosophy entry there are several accounts of what constitutes a law of nature. The account which is of interest here is what is known as the “systems” account, where laws of nature are nothing more than deductive systems. To quote from them:
Deductive systems are individuated by their axioms. The logical consequences of the axioms are the theorems. Some true deductive systems will be stronger than others; some will be simpler than others. These two virtues, strength and simplicity, compete. (It is easy to make a system stronger by sacrificing simplicity: include all the truths as axioms. It is easy to make a system simple by sacrificing strength: have just the axiom that 2 + 2 = 4.) According to Lewis (1973, 73), the laws of nature belong to all the true deductive systems with a best combination of simplicity and strength. So, for example, the thought is that it is a law that all uranium spheres are less than a mile in diameter because it is, arguably, part of the best deductive systems; quantum theory is an excellent theory of our universe and might be part of the best systems, and it is plausible to think that quantum theory plus truths describing the nature of uranium would logically entail that there are no uranium spheres of that size (Loewer 1996, 112). It is doubtful that the generalization that all gold spheres are less than a mile in diameter would be part of the best systems. It could be added as an axiom to any system, but it would bring little or nothing of interest in terms of strength and adding it would sacrifice something in terms of simplicity.
I won’t go into the pros and cons of this account in detail except to note two points: One supposed strength of this account is that it keeps within Humean constrains in not postulating mysterious metaphysical entities like universals or causation, etc, and it also keeps within the limits of Humean supervenience ““the doctrine that all there is in the world is a vast mosaic of local matters of particular fact, just one little thing and then another”.
However it is one core objection to this account which is of interest to us:
Some argue that this approach will have the untoward consequence that laws are inappropriately mind-dependent in virtue of the account’s appeal to the concepts of simplicity, strength and best balance, concepts whose instantiation seems to depend on cognitive abilities, interests, and purposes. The appeal to simplicity raises further questions stemming from the apparent need for a regimented language to permit reasonable comparisons of the systems (Lewis 1983, 367.)
The objection here as such seems to be that the systems view of the laws of nature makes them look like “mind-dependent” or cognitive-shaped entities. However, instead of viewing this as a modus tollens, we can see this as a modus ponens instead. Since the laws of nature are mind-dependent and cognitive-shaped entities, therefore we can infer that the universe is maintained by mind-dependent or cognitive-shaped universal mind.
As such, any law of nature, physics, or information system in general, which conforms to mathematical system, would be "mind-like" or cognitively shaped, they are themselves the acts of a mind.
Degrees of Minds
One could object that all these are merely mind like and not literally a mind or otherwise one would be guilty of anthropomorphism, etc, etc, then we can push Dennett’s argument that a mind just is this ordered structure or system without any special remainder or qualitatively exotic extra “qualia” needed to make something a mind.
This of course is not a novel argument. The mathematician and philosopher Raymond M. Smullyan, as well as Asian philosophers, has already noted a similar point. In Smullyan fictional dialogue, Is God a Taoist? one merely needs to substitute “personal” for “mind-like” to see that more or less the same point is being made.
Mortal: There is one thing about your self-description which is somewhat disturbing. You describe yourself essentially as a process. This puts you in such an impersonal light, and so many people have a need for a personal God.
God: So because they need a personal God, it follows that I am one?
Mortal: Of course not. But to be acceptable to a mortal a religion must satisfy his needs.
God: I realize that. But the so-called “personality” of a being is really more in the eyes of the beholder than in the being itself. The controversies which have raged, about whether I am a personal or an impersonal being are rather silly because neither side is right or wrong. From one point of view, I am personal, from another, I am not. It is the same with a human being. A creature from another planet may look at him purely impersonally as a mere collection of atomic particles behaving according to strictly prescribed physical laws. He may have no more feeling for the personality of a human than the average human has for an ant. Yet an ant has just as much individual personality as a human to beings like myself who really know the ant. To look at something impersonally is no more correct or incorrect than to look at it personally, but in general, the better you get to know something, the more personal it becomes. To illustrate my point, do you think of me as a personal or impersonal being?
Mortal: Well, I’m talking to you, am I not?
God: Exactly! From that point of view, your attitude toward me might be described as a personal one. And yet, from another point of view — no less valid — I can also be looked at impersonally.
Again, we are not drawing a bright or clear line between human minds and all other minds, nor dependent on theories which argues the same. Our conception of a mind just needs be "rich" enough to encompass a range of phenomena to include the organisation which we do perceive in nature.
Concluding Thoughts: Will and Belief
I hope that this discourse has given enough tools and materials for perceiving the divine existence. One must be clear that by no means have these discussions established that the mind perceived is the God of Abraham Isaac and Jacob, or the God of the Bible. Those have to do with special revelation and how God specially intervenes in history and nature to reveal his will. It does not establish other qualities of God like that He is infinite, omnipotent, benevolent, etc. We will probably need to discuss the ontological argument for that as well as the nature and limits of logic. In the words of the Archbishop Cranmer:
For if we did only know, what God were, and did know nothing of his will toward us, whether he were our friend or foe, favourable or angry, pleased or displeased with us, then our conscience being other wavering and doubtful, should be destitute and void of comfort.
Thus, Cranmer understood that there was a difference between knowing merely "what God were" and knowing "of his will towards us". The conceptual instruments here furnish tools for perceiving that God were, they are not empowered to guide us to know his will towards us.
There might however be a much more basic philosophical problem: I have been arguing about using these conceptual tools to aid oneself to see or perceive God, aren't I implicitly already assuming that there is something to be seen in the first place? Again, I can appeal back to our previous discussion on the problems of other minds, I assume that there are other minds, I only describe how and the methods for perceiving them, I don't purport to justify their existence or that there is anything for the methods to perceive.
In philosophy this is related to the theory that belief in the existence of God is properly basic. It is just "obvious" like how 1+1=2 or that the shortest distance between two points is a straight line, and doesn't need justifying. You simply need to frame and describe the method for grasping it and they will "see" that it is true. If God is supposed to be an object of worship and praise for everyone, it would hardly do that He can only be grasped by those willing to wade through extensive philosophical discussions like this one. It has to be obvious even to a child.
This doesn't mean that it can't be proven, there are set theoretic proofs for 1+1=2 and advanced calculus arguments for the shortest distance between two points being a straight line. But a person who unironically really doubts that 1+1=2 isn't going to be persuaded by a very complicated argument from advanced set theory. Likewise, the discussions here are meant to provide additional tools and instruments to focus our attention to perceive God, but if you refuse to look into the telescope, no one can help you, just as there are some who actually unironically today reject basic arithmetic propositions.
In the end, accepting a belief is not just a matter of perception and experience, there is ultimately an element of subjective will and decision to believe, which goes back to the initial discussion on English law court "standards of proof": subjective satisfaction.
0
0
24
Dominic Foo
Mar 30, 2024
In Christian Theology
Since today is Holy Saturday, the time between Good Friday and Easter Sunday, I thought it would be good to write some reflections on this day which has traditionally been commemorated as the "Harrowing of Hell".
It seems from the Bible that after Christ gave up his Spirit, he descended to the dead, stormed the gates of Hades and liberated the captives of Death. Traditionally it is held that this begun with Adam and all the Old Testament patriarchs. This is the outworking of the victory of Christ whereby he brings the life-saving words of the Gospel down to the very lowest depths of Satan's domain and Death's power and "preached to the spirits in prison", proclaiming deliverance from Satan's and Death powers and leading them to freedom from their literal death grip.
The implications of this of course is that there is simply absolutely nowhere where Christ's life and victory is not present, nowhere where Christ's saving power cannot be applied. As Romans 8:38-39 put is, "neither death, nor life" can separate us from the love of God. So death itself is no barrier to the love of God in Jesus Christ.
Hades, Death and Judgement
There has been some conceptual confusion with regards to Hades which rarely has been clarified. In the Hebrew, the word "Sheol" and in the Greek, "Hades", has been used to refer to "the place of the dead". It is technically not "Hell", if by "Hell" we mean the place of everlasting damnation.
We have to remember that the sentence to "Hell" or the everlasting fires only occurs at the Last Judgement, at the consumation of all things. This is a little difficult to understand because we cannot help but think of "Hades", "Heaven and Hell" as space-time events or locations, and attempt to square them with our own temporal world and our historical space-time. Here is an analogy which might help.
When we do our mathematical proofs, we reason step by step, from this equation to the next equation to the next. This is essentially a sequence of deductions. But this is not a temporal sequence of deductions. No "time" has elapsed from one deduction to another, although time has elapsed in our in time understanding of the flow of deductions, but the deduction itself is "timeless". It is essentially an atemporal sequence of deductions which doesn't take any "time", the sequence of deduction is eternally what it is.
Thus, we must think of the relationship between "Hades", "Judgement", "Heaven and Hell" this way too. There is the space-time world, our world, of flowing events in historic time. But "Hades", "Judgement", "Heaven and Hell" are entities which are not part of our historical space-time. They are more like different states which people "enter" into once they depart from our space-time temporal world into these realms out of our time.
In the Old Testament, "Hades" or "Sheol" is simply the "place" of the dead. Of course it isn't a literal physical location, it is more like the state of a person. As the Lutheran theologian Peter Burfeind puts it,
...Sheol is revealed in the Old Testament with more nuance than the wooden translation “hell” would indicate. Far from being the place of final, fiery, and eternal punishment traditionally assigned to hell, Sheol must be seen as a place flexible enough to embrace meanings such as pit, grave, punishment, sorrow, guilt, and even depression. In other words, it is the place where sin, death, and the power of the devil reign supreme.
Jacob repeatedly mentions Sheol as the destination for his “gray hair” (Gn 37:35; 42:38; 44:29–31). Solomon speaks without qualification when he writes, “Whatever your hand hands to do, do it with your might; for there is no work or device or knowledge or wisdom in [Sheol] where you are going” (Eccl 9:10). Job even identified Sheol as a place of repose from his sufferings (Job 14:13). Of course, the psalmist and prophets anticipate the curse of Sheol also for the wicked, even if in several contexts it is not so much punishments in Sheol which are anticipated, but death itself which will bring to naught the self-aggrandizing plans of the wicked (Ps 9:17; 55:15; Is 5:14; 14:9; and others). Yet, in the end the effects of the fall and its curse are upon all people.
The difference between the righteous and the wicked is not so much of place, as it is of hope. The righteous, while going to Sheol, hope for a restoration to life. The psalmist demonstrates this truth poignantly when he writes of this restoration as a “morning”:
"This is the way of those who are foolish,
And of their posterity who approve their sayings.
Like sheep they are laid in [Sheol];
Death shall feed on them;
The upright shall have dominion over them in the morning;
And their beauty shall be consumed in the grave, far from their dwelling.
But God will redeem my soul from the power of [Sheol], For he shall receive me. (Ps 49:13–15)
Thus, Hades or Sheol is the state of man whereby Sin and Satan's power has overcome and have dominion over him. In other words, it is the state of man who has died and fallen into sin and death's power. So when it is said that "It is appointed for man to die once, and after that comes the Judgement", this is not a statement of linear temporality, as if in the next "split second" or "instant", a person from death "immediately" goes to the Judgement according to our linear time. We're dealing with entities and events here which occur outside of our own historic space-time. Thus, it simply speaks of an ordering of events, not the amount of "time" it takes to go from one event to another. Thus, we die first, thereby entering into the state of Hades or Sheol, and from that state we go to the Last Judgement. As we can see in Revelations 20:11-13,
Then I saw a great white throne and him who sat upon it; from his presence earth and sky fled away, and no place was found for them. And I saw the dead, great and small, standing before the throne, and books were opened. Also another book was opened, which is the book of life. And the dead were judged by what was written in the books, by what they had done. And the sea gave up the dead in it, Death and Hades gave up the dead in them, and all were judged by what they had done.
Thus, at the Last Judgement, the dead will leave Death and Hades and enter into God's judgement. This event occurs at the final consummation, at the end of time itself.
Preaching to the Dead
Thus, given the fact that all of us live in actual linear time, therefore all the persons who have died, from our temporal perspective, are still in the region of "Hades" or the Dead, and from our perspective, the return of Christ in glory, the General Resurrection, the Last Judgement and Final Consummation has not occurred. It cannot be emphasized enough that for the dead themselves, they are essentially in a region outside of our own space-time, they would not experience time or the flow of events as we do, thus, it is not as if they are feeling every moment or second in Hades after they die in the same way as we are experience time in this world.
Therefore we must likewise understand the concept of the "preaching to the dead" by Christ. It is not a "one-time" event, occurring two thousand years ago when Christ died. It is an event which occurs outside of our own space-time. The preaching of the Gospel to the dead reverberates for all time until the Death and Hades itself are "thrown in the lake of fire" (Rev 20:14) at the Last Judgement. Thus, the dead who depart from our temporal world into Hades will hear that single thunder of Christ's preaching and command of liberation which continues to resound until the end of time, and hearing those words of life and receiving it, they shall be resurrected unto everlasting life. As the contemporary Russian Orthodox theologian, Archbishop Hilarion Alfeyev, explores all this in his recent book, Christ the Conqueror of Hell (2009),
Christ’s saving of the dead and the exodus from Hades were not one-time events that occurred in the past without significance for the present. These are events that transcend time, whose fruits were reaped not only by those who were imprisoned in hell before Christ’s descent but also by future generations.
This is why in 1 Peter 4:6 it speaks of "why the gospel was preached even to the dead, that though judged in the flesh like men, they might live in the spirit like God." Some church fathers even postulated that after the apostle's death they are sent into Hades to continue preaching the Gospel there to the dead!
Hope for the Dead
The importance and significance of Christ's descend into hell has vast implications, as a Barthian theologian puts it,
...it means that even hell itself is no longer a place of separation from God. Christ has penetrated into the depths of hell, flooding its darkness with the light of love. Hell has become a site of divine activity, a venue of divine love. ‘If I make my bed in Hades, you are there’ (Psalm 139:8).
Thus, as Christ broke the power of Hades and Death and overcome it with his divine presence, so likewise we on earth should take heart and never despair for those who have died, especially for those who have died without faith. For their deaths most certainly do not put them beyond and outside the power of Christ, who came precisely to overcome the power of death! Their death are not beyond hope, it is not some kind of finishing line which puts them outside the power of Christ. No, the Harrowing of Hell precisely demonstrates that the dead are not outside the salvic power of Christ, that his preaching there has overcomes death itself. As St Paul declares confidently in Romans 8:38-39,
For I am sure that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor things present, nor things to come, nor powers, nor height, nor depth, nor anything else in all creation, will be able to separate us from the love of God in Christ Jesus our Lord.
Christ's love for mankind cannot be separated by death. It is not as if the person who has died without faith is forever beyond Christ's love and however separated from Christ's love. Death cannot separate us from Christ's love, only persistent and perpetual unbelief.
Conclusion: Prayers for the Dead
Therefore even as we reflect on the significance of the Harrowing of Hell, let us take heart in this glorious victory of Christ over the dead, and let us hope in Christ's love for all mankind, and the power of his preached Gospel to the dead, and in that faith, let us offer up prayers for those who have died, that truly the preaching of Christ's Gospel shall raise them from the dead and liberate them from Hades, into the glorious presence of God our Father, whose love has appeared in his Son Jesus Christ, who has conquered Hades itself. And therefore, in that light, I put forward the following prayer that we might join together with the dead to be "partakers of thy heavenly kingdom", taken from the 1662 Book of Common Prayer:
And we also bless thy holy Name for all thy servants departed this life in thy faith and fear; beseeching thee to give us grace so to follow their good examples, that with them we may be partakers of thy heavenly kingdom: Grant this, O Father, for Jesus Christ's sake, our only Mediator and Advocate.
Amen.
0
0
23
Dominic Foo
Mar 29, 2024
In Christian Theology
I want to discuss here a little of the phenomenology of praying towards heaven and what it means. But a preliminary qualifier, I think it is appropriate to bow one's head when confessing sins and praying for forgiveness, after the example of the tax collector who would not even look up to heaven when he confessed his sin, as opposed to the Pharisee. But I think for other petitions and worship, the default posture is to face heaven. In fact the early Christians were thought to be sky worshippers because they kept facing heaven whenever they prayed.
First, biblically we not only have Jesus’s own example of facing heaven when he prayed, but fundamentally it is God's own title: our Father in heaven, and Jesus himself has ascended into heaven and is seated at the right hand of God in heaven.
Now it maybe argued that this isn't literally at the sky but a sort of aspatial location (paradoxically!), but again, Jesus’s own example of facing heaven suggests that it is not that simple. In facing heaven we are confronted with a vast expense, and with modern cosmology, when we look up to the sky we are really looking towards an almost boundless space beyond the earth. We acknowledge an infinite God not only beyond the earth beyond the near infinity of space, but also a God over the earth, as the vast heavens cover and govern the whole earth.
I suggest that the phenomenology of a literal heavenly Father who is infinite and governs the whole earth when one gazes at the sky and beyond is very different from the experience of praying eyes closed and looking inwards towards oneself. Again, bowing one's head in penitence and shame when confessing sins is fine, but I think the default posture of forgiven saints is standing upwards and looking upwards towards heaven in triumph. I remember when the Egyptian Anglican Archbishop visited Singapore and was about to give the benediction, he was surprised that we knelt for it and asked us to stand to receive it. I suppose this is Coptic influence but I suggest, the right posture.
As such, I think there is much to commend not only Jesus’s own example, but that also that of natural theology where in Chinese folk religion, one does literally refer to Sky Father or heaven as God.
So I've started changing my prayer practice by praying towards the window and looking towards the sky, but old habits die hard. But it is phenomenologically different, it's less introspective and looking inward to one's feeling and more "confrontational" as it were, looking into the sky, and the space beyond, and then into the Infinite Being beyond who commands all.
I think this posture is different, confront and face your Judge and God in the "eye", and in open and honest heart before the Almighty, uncloak all your affectations and pray with full assurance and good conscience with Christ standing between in Heaven interceding for you.
Basically my argument in meme format:
0
0
12
Dominic Foo
Mar 23, 2024
In Politics and Current Affairs
I would like to make a brief post as to why many people, and not just Anglos, seem to believe that the meaning of words is found in the author's intentions, and not by its objective referents as I have been arguing of late.
Suppose you were talking with someone and then you believe that he misspoke because it doesn't make sense, or said something unclear, thus you say to him, "I think you meant (intended!) to say this instead?" Your interlocutor then realises his mistake or clarifies himself, then the conversation moves on, you know what he intended to say, what was on his mind.
But note very carefully the context I've set out here: you're talking to a live person, the context here is that you are primarily addressing someone, you're not so much interested in the words itself, you're interested in him, and what he thought. Thus, by very framing of this context his intentions is the primary object which you are addressing. It makes no sense to keep insisting on what he said in the past when in the present he has clarified his own thoughts and intentions, you're addressing him primarily, not his words.
Yet, prima facie, it makes no sense to abstract from this context to discuss the meaning of other public documents or texts like laws and constitutions. Again, as I've repeated again and again and again, unless you pretend to engage in necromancy and receiving messages from ancestral spirits (in heaven or hell), you are NOT having a live conversation with anyone living. It makes NO SENSE addressing the minds of a person either sleeping in hades, roasting in hell, or enjoying the bliss of heaven. Unless you engage in witchcraft or necromancy, you CANNOT talk to the dead. The ONLY other context in which the dead can speak with us is via faith in Christ. "By faith Abel, though he is dead, still speaks". By what demonic force do Founding Fathers of dubious or doubtful Christian credentials speak to us today via the Constitution?
You might say that this might be so with the Constitution, but surely it would not be applicable to present day legislation and laws where the legislators are still alive. Now, legislation made by a collective body is very tricky because it is unclear whose intentions you should seek. I am reminded here of Eusebius, who was part of the body which drafted and ratified the original Nicene Creed, who proceeded to "clarify" his intentions by giving it an Arian interpretation. Generally, commentaries after the fact do not affect or alter the meaning of a collective text. Imagine if Congress or a legislative body enacted a legislation banning abortion, and then later on some left or liberal politicians, who voted for it, wrote a legal commentary "clarifying" their intentions to have some exceptions to the ban. Generally when it comes to a collective document, it is somewhat arbitrary whose subjective intention you want to consult, and legislation generally acquire a life of its own independent of the subjective intentions of its authors. If they want to "clarify" the legislation, they have to pass another law, not write a clarification after the fact.
The reality is that this "interpretation of laws by intention" really is muddled thinking which goes back to when laws were made by individual kings. The king can deliberate legal decisions and legislation "in council" (the predecessor of parliament), but ultimately the king himself has to make up his own mind, and his decrees is literally just a statement of his intentions. So if you want to know what the law meant, just ask him! In fact Glanville, a 12th century medieval treatise by Henry II's Chief Justiciar on the laws and customs of England, went so far as to say: "what pleases the prince has the force of law", the law literally just is a statement of his intentions.
It is highly ironic that for Americans, who expressly rejected the king, rejected the idea of the law being the product of the subjective will or intention of kings, who insist on the government of laws against the government of man, the law as an objective thing, still want to interpret the law as if there was a living king behind it, with a particular set subjective intentions which they can consult.
0
0
13
Dominic Foo
Mar 17, 2024
In Politics and Current Affairs
So far I've been arguing for variants of moral nihilism and against the Anglo-American superstitious reverence of morality as well as how moralism is basically their religion, in this post I want to qualify my critique of the "morality institution" and argue that it does actually have a proper delimited purpose and utility. But in which case we need to be careful that we are speaking of "morality" in the older sense of mores and customs, social conventions, and not in the later Post-Reformation exalted sense of the standard of right or wrong or the divine law.
As the above Oxford English Definition shows, the older meaning of "morals" is actually just "mores", customs, social conventions and codes of behaviour of particular cultures or societies.
Now, for Christians the true "standard of right and wrong" is clearly the will of God ("Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven." Matthew 7:21), the question becomes how do mores/customs/conventions figure on our ability to obey the will of God? It is clear that theologians and philosophers of the 17th-19th century were very much concerned with "morals", but they understood "mores" very differently in terms of its social utility and use in aiding us to do what's right/wrong, it is not itself the standard of right and wrong.
I think this extended discussion from William Paley (yes, THE Paley of watchmaker argument for God fame), who argues for the need
Virtue is “the doing good to mankind, in obedience to the will of God, and for the sake of everlasting happiness.”
According to which definition, “the good of mankind” is the subject; the “will of God,” the rule; and “everlasting happiness,” the motive, of human virtue.
[...]
I shall proceed to state a few observations, which relate to the general regulation of human conduct; unconnected indeed with each other, but very worthy of attention; and which fall as properly under the title of this chapter as of any future one.
I. Mankind act more from habit than reflection.
It is on few only and great occasions that men deliberate at all; on fewer still, that they institute any thing like a regular inquiry into the moral rectitude or depravity of what they are about to do; or wait for the result of it. We are for the most part determined at once; and by an impulse, which is the effect and energy of pre-established habits. And this constitution seems well adapted to the exigencies of human life, and to the imbecility of our moral principle. In the current occasions and rapid opportunities of life, there is often-times little leisure for reflection; and were there more, a man, who has to reason about his duty, when the temptation to transgress it is upon him, is almost sure to reason himself into an error.
If we are in so great a degree passive under our habits; Where, it is asked, is the exercise of virtue, the guilt of vice, or any use of moral and religious knowledge? I answer, In the forming and contracting of these habits.
And hence results a rule of life of considerable importance, viz. that many things are to be done and abstained from, solely for the sake of habit. We will explain ourselves by an example or two. A beggar, with the appearance of extreme distress, asks our charity. If we come to argue the matter, whether the distress be real, whether it be not brought upon himself, whether it be of public advantage to admit such application, whether it be not to encourage idleness and vagrancy, whether it may not invite impostors to our doors, whether the money can be well spared, or might not be better applied; when these considerations are put together, it may appear very doubtful, whether we ought or ought not to give any thing. But when we reflect, that the misery before our eyes excites our pity, whether we will or not; that it is of the utmost consequence to us to cultivate this tenderness of mind; that it is a quality, cherished by indulgence, and soon stifled by opposition; when this, I say, is considered, a wise man will do that for his own sake, which he would have hesitated to do for the petitioner’s; he will give way to his compassion, rather than offer violence to a habit of so much general use.
A man of confirmed good habits, will act in the same manner without any consideration at all.
This may serve for one instance; another is the following. A man has been brought up from his infancy with a dread of lying. An occasion presents itself where, at the expense of a little veracity, he may divert his company, set off his own wit with advantage, attract the notice and engage the partiality of all about him. This is not a small temptation. And when he looks at the other side of the question, he sees no mischief that can ensue from this liberty, no slander of any man’s reputation, no prejudice likely to arise to any man’s interest. Where there nothing further to be considered, it would be difficult to show why a man under such circumstances might not indulge his humour. But when he reflects that his scruples about lying have hitherto preserved him free from this vice; that occasions like the present will return, where the inducement may be equally strong, but the indulgence much less innocent; that his scruples will wear away by a few transgressions, and leave him subject to one of the meanest and most pernicious of all bad habits—a habit of lying, whenever it will serve his turn: when all this, I say, is considered, a wise man will forego the present, or a much greater pleasure, rather than lay the foundation of a character so vicious and contemptible.
From what has been said, may be explained also the nature of habitual virtue. By the definition of virtue, placed at the beginning of this chapter, it appears, that the good of mankind is the subject, the will of God the rule, and everlasting happiness the motive and end, of all virtue. Yet, in fact, a man shall perform many an act of virtue, without having either the good of mankind, the will of God, or everlasting happiness in his thought. How is this to be understood? In the same manner as that a man may be a very good servant, without being conscious, at every turn, of a particular regard to his master’s will, or of an express attention to his master’s interest: indeed, your best old servants are of this sort: but then he must have served for a length of time under the actual direction of these motives, to bring it to this: in which service, his merit and virtue consist.
There are habits, not only of drinking, swearing, and lying, and of some other things, which are commonly acknowledged to be habits, and called so; but of every modification of action, speech, and thought. Man is a bundle of habits.
-The Principles of Moral and Political Philosophy: Book 1, Chapter 7: Virtue
Thus we have here an excellent argument for the formation and adherence to habits, mores and customs. Generally attempting to discern and reflect on the reasons for action in every case takes up too much mental bandwidth, and opens one to the temptation of rationalising away the right course of action in particular difficult cases. Thus, ingrained customary and habitual adherence to established mores will, overall, improve the propensity of society to do the right thing.
But notice that these are rather prudential and pragmatic arguments for moral formation and adhering to mores, they are not exalted theological or philosophical arguments. It still remains to teachers and civil authorities to ensure that the correct mores and customs are formed. Thus, mores and customs are not themselves the ultimate standard, they are social codes/rules formed to achieve the true standard: the will of God, but their use is instrumentalist, pragmatic, for social and personal utility.
If mores and customs were to mean no more than this very practical sense, then it is a thing very much to be welcome. But this will also mean that mores/customs/morals will always be open to revision and reformation to be more perfectly conformed to the will of God, and they are not themselves the ultimate standard.
To end on a historical note, doubtless English philosophers and theologians were concerned about "morals and mores" after the religious upheavals of the 16th-17th century where theological questions and practices were constantly being litigated, overhauled, and revised. After the dust settled with the Glorious Revolution, it is likely that they sought to stabilise religious life by instilling stable "mores and customs" for civic and religious life in England. The unfortunate thing is that England was stable for so long that the religious origins of those "mores and customs" was forgotten, and "morality" became a strange autonomous institution in itself, the standard of right and wrong which floats in the air. I think given our tumultuous times, it is time to interrogate and revisit our current "mores and customs" and ask what are its exact characteristics, origins and influences, and reform them accordingly.
0
0
14
Dominic Foo
Mar 09, 2024
In The Sciences and Technology
While in popular literature and philosophical circles the discovery of non-Euclidean geometry may seem like an earth-shattering discovery, subverting our confidence in the absolute truth and nature of mathematics and reality, its actual study may seem like a trick or word play.
Consider Spherical Geometry, an example of non-Euclidean Geometry which I think should be the easiest to understand and the most empirically familiar. To understand how Non-Euclidean geometry works you have to understand how geometricians understand a "line" and a "point". We normally think that a "line" is just a "straight line", but if you restrict the referent of "line" to just the great circles on a sphere, and "point" to any points on the surface of the sphere (thus there are no "points" inside the sphere), you get a very different and interesting geometry. (Roughly, a great circle is a line on the surface of the sphere generated by cutting a plane passing through the center of the sphere.)
Thus, given that on the sphere the only "lines", or line segments, are these great circles on the sphere, or parts thereof, and the only "points" are points on the surface of the sphere, it is easy to see why core axioms of Euclidean Geometry fail to obtain here. Consider for example the parallel postulate (using Playfair's Version): Given any "line" CD, and any "point" S not on the line CD, there exists one and only one "line" QR passing through the "point" S that does not meet the CD.
But in Spherical Geometry, as we have restricted the referent of "line" and "point", there are no parallel lines because every "line" (great circle), passing through a point P not on another "line" (great circle) l, must meet the latter line/great circle somewhere, either at the equator or at the poles.
At this point you'll complain, well, that's cheating, you have just redefined the meaning of "line" and restricted it to the surface of this sphere, but that's not what people usually mean by "line" in "the real world", they mean a "straight line". But what is the "real world"? We're literally talking about a sphere which is as close an approximation to the literal world/earth (technically more like an ellipsoid). It seems like doing geometry on the actual spherical/elliptical planet is as "real world" an activity as one can get.
Even if we want to discuss the usual Euclidean geometry of a "straight line" and the parallel postulate, the problem is that our "common sense" understanding of this isn't very "real" either. Think again about Playfair's parallel postulate, there is one and only one line on a point not on another line that will never meet the latter line. But has anyone ever seen an infinitely long line that has never met another line? "In the real world"? Or even in our universe? (Which according to some physicists is merely finite in extent, etc) This brings us to an important insight: what we imagine to be a "common sense" "real world" axiom is actually itself an idealisation, dare I even say, a construct, an idealised infinitely long 'straight' line which no one has ever seen anywhere in the "real world". If we are allowed to idealise infinitely long straight lines, which no one has ever seen "in the real world", why can't we also idealise other lines on spheres and other exotic geometries?
After all, if the "real world" is a cosmos constituted by a vast elliptical or spherical space (maybe due to General Relativity or whatever), then locally it looks like the parallel postulate holds, given a "line" or "great circle" on this cosmic sphere, that great circle wouldn't meet another great circle for millions and millions and millions of miles. So, "for all practical purposes", it looks parallel, but eventually it may still meet somewhere halfway across the galaxy.
The point of this little excursion into Non-Euclidean Geometry is a two-fold: it is not as earth shattering a discovery as we might be lead to believe, it may even feel a little disappointing because it feels like "cheating" by redefining the ordinary meaning of words, but it is also an important insight into how much unconscious expectations goes into our definition and referent of words. Yes, "everyone knows" that when we use the word "line", we "really" mean a straight line, in that sense Spherical Geometry is "cheating", but then we need to ask ourselves, why do we privilege "the straight line" as the universal standard definition of line? Who is to say that this definition is always applicable everywhere? Non-Euclidean geometry, by interrogating the "ordinary" meaning of words, at the same time deepens our understanding of these ordinary words, expands our minds to other possibilities, while also introducing a new rigor in being more precise about what we mean or refer to by our words.
0
0
12
Dominic Foo
Mar 09, 2024
In Philosophy and Humanities
An interesting feature about a lot of ancient and medieval stories is how much loopholes play a part in their narratives. I remember a film adaptation of Jason and the Argonauts where the goddess allowed him three answers to any questions and Jason asked if the golden fleece exists and if so, where is it. The goddess then said, I will answer both questions with one answer: it is at Colhis.
Even as late as Shakespeare we can see this in the prophecies of the three sisters which were all technically correct but which did not meet the expectations of Macbeth. The most famous instance of this is in Lord of the Rings when the Lord of the Nazgûl declared the prophecy that "no man may kill me" and Éowyn replied, "I am no man", which is technically true even if it goes against our expectation that "man" is supposed to cover both sexes. There was a medieval tale, I think it was Tristan and Iseult, where Iseult was suppose to swear an oath that she was chaste. So their scheme was that the oath would take place in an open soggy field, and when Iseult complained that she could not cross it, Tristan in disguise would offer to piggy back her across it. Finally when she arrived she placed her hand on the sacred relics and swore that "no man has been between my legs except the man who just carried me." There was the ancient expectation that oaths and words were sacred and that one could not lie to God, nor would it do to pervert the meaning of words. Thus what they could do is to simply exploit loopholes and phrase it in a way which is truthful, preserves the integrity of words, while defying expectations. In the television adaption of Sharpe, who was an English officer in the 95th Rifles during Wellington's campaign in Spain, was supposed to take an oath before Wellington that he would not attempt to take a French eagle as asked by a dying officer. Sharpe, even though not particularly pious, still carefully worded his oath to say, "No one heard me make any promise concerning a French imperial eagle."
I remember an episode of Justice Bao where the emperor's real mother, who was wrongfully displaced by a usurper, wanted him to punish the emperor for filial impiety, but emperors cannot be beaten, so since the emperor's robe was the emperor in "person", Bao Gong just had the robe beaten instead. Such examples are staple in a lot of medieval and ancient literature.
I remember when I was younger reading these I would be like, well, that's cheating! EVERYONE KNOWS what we "really" mean and intend by those words. But now that I am older, it is not really that the ancients were trying to be clever, it reflected the older view of the world where words were sacred objects which transcends human will. We have to work with them and we cannot subject them to our will and intentions. While obviously we craft prose and statements, they have their own independent meaning which are not infinitely plastic in our hands. We build cars to be sure, we have to however build them respecting the laws of physics or it will malfunction or blow up in our faces.
But at some point in the modern age, words lost as it were its potency, rather than paying attention to the objective referents of the text, we dismiss the text to get at what people intended or what people want, which becomes all important. I don't think it is an exaggeration to say that there is a line from the decline of the ability to appreciate a good loophole and the current fad to subject the definitions of men and women to our arbitrary whims. Words, especially loopholes, no longer can frustrate our subjective expectations anymore, we have completely tamed it and made them our slaves.
But if words are our slaves, how can we be ruled or governed by laws which are just words? Thus we experience now the serious consequences of this train of thought.
0
0
19
Dominic Foo
Feb 13, 2024
In Current Church Affairs
A lot of people are rather horrified by my "moral nihilism" and my relentless critique of the morality institution and various moralisms. But if one thinks about this very carefully, moralism, the priority of morality over religion, does lie at the heart of liberal Christianity.
Think about the common trope in an attempt to separate Christ from the inspired Scriptures: "Christ is God, not the Bible" or "Christ is the way, the truth and the life, not the Bible". Now, I have myself personal leanings towards neo-orthodoxy, but whenever I hear people trying to separate Christ from the Bible, the first question I ask myself is: okay, then how do you know or learn about Christ apart from the Bible? Do you have new prophetic revelation? Some other source of knowledge of Christ such as unwritten oral traditions? The surprising, or rather unsurprising, thing is that there is nothing supernatural about their alternative sources of knowledge about Christ.
Of course liberal Christians aren't the first to say that the Bible is unreliable or corrupt, the Mohammedans have already been there of course, but they simply "corrected" the Bible by the perfect revelations of the Qu'ran, thus they have better divinely inspired information about Christ by literal prophetic revelation. Other crazier cults and more normalised ones (sideways glance at Mormons), will claim other prophetic sources of divine revelation for Christ.
Yet no liberal Christian will claim that they have other sources of divine revelation concerning Jesus when they want to distance Christ from the Bible. So how do they have information concerning Christ apart from the Bible? We are inevitably led to their subjective moral judgement of what a "good" and "loving" Christ will look like, and then they reconstruct Christ along those lines. According to my sense of what is good and loving, this is what a good/loving Christ will do and be like, etc. Thus, that there's little or nothing supernatural about their Christ is almost self-evident, but that there's nothing supernatural about their alternartive sources for who or what Jesus Christ is is something which is rarely noted, it is pure deduction and inferences from their personal moral judgements and instincts. It is not like they have performed miracles to confirm their new revelations concerning Christ. Naturally the relationship between natural revelation and supernatural revelation can be nuanced,(https://www.latitudeevangelicals.com/forum/apologetics/how-do-miracles-authenticate-divine-revelation-a-sketch-of-a-general-framework-for-evaluating-rival-miracles?searchTerm=miracles) and it could be argued, in some sense, that natural revelation is a precondition for supernatural revelation, but indeed they don't claim to have any supernatural revelation at all, it's pure moralism all the way down.
As such, if they can reconstruct God and Jesus Christ in their own moral image, isn't this basically morality overtaking religion, and even subverting it? How has morality not itself already become a god, capable of shaping and remaking God himself sans actual supernatural actions and events like prophetic revelation or miraculous confirmation/authentication?
It seems therefore to me that moralism does lie at the heart of liberal Christianity, and from which it draws its fundamentals and strength. And as the morals of the age change, so does their God and Christ morph and change. As a side note, there is an interesting viscereal instinct of Anglosphere Christians against the supernatural or the incursion of the supernatural into nature. I remember arguing for the practice of casting lots and I got an extremely strong pushback from perfectly respectable conservative Christians. It isn't that lots can't be abused or that we need to have a discussion on how to properly use it, the idea is that it is simply unthinkable. Then again, this could be due to the disestablishment of religion from public life a very long time ago, but that's a discussion for another day.
0
0
28
Dominic Foo
Feb 10, 2024
In Theological History&Tradition
We believe, that we ought diligently and circumspectly to discern from the Word of God which is the true Church, since all sects which are in the world assume to themselves the name of the Church.
-Belgic Confession 1561
Hauerwas’ work epitomises the core failure of theological postmodernism: the failure to use the word ‘church’ with sufficient care. Contemporary theology ought to reflect far more critically on the use of this word. For this word is intellectually dangerous. Rather like a beautiful woman (apologies for the gendered analogy), it has the power to make intelligent men forget their critical duties; to enchant them. It is crucial that we interrogate every use of this word; that we ask whether it refers to an actual institution or an ideal. Instead, ambiguity on this question is universally tolerated, as if ‘church’ is meant to be used with pious vagueness, as if this is part of its grammar.
-Theo Hobson, Against Hauerwas
Introduction: Some Definition of Terms
One of the most common attempts by high church advocates to distinguish their doctrine of the Church against Protestantism is to insist upon the "visibility" and "unchangeability" of their Church. However in this post I would argue that high church ecclesiology, when sufficiently interrogated in the light of admissions of historical "developments", is hardly "visible" for it often turns out to be an "invisible" ideal transcending the particular empirically discernible writings and actions of ecclesiastical figures or institutions. The result however causes the concept of "the Church" to become a highly artificial academic construct of individual theologians or historians, creating several problems for them in their attempt to distinguish their position from Protestantism.
First some definitions. I will use the word "high church" to refer primarily to denominations and sub-denominations, like Roman Catholicism and Eastern Orthodoxy, which attributes great theological significance to the "visible Church". I will use the term "Magisterial Protestantism" to refer to the original Protestantism at the start of the Reformation, the Protestantism of Luther, Calvin, Zwingli and Cranmer, etc, generally Protestantism before the 17th century. This definition I believe is important because even the concept of the "invisible Church" itself has several shades of meaning and while I would argue that the high church concept converges to that of the Protestant, yet it is not quite the same concept.
The Magisterial Protestant Doctrine of the Visible and Invisible Church
A draft confession written by Archbishop Cranmer, but later abandoned, contains the most succinct explanation of the doctrine of the invisible Church in contrast to the visible Church.
In the Scripture, the word “Church” has two main meanings, apart from others; one of which means the congregation of all the saints and true believers, who really believe in Christ the Head and are sanctified by his Spirit. This is the living and truly holy mystical body of Christ, but known only to God, who alone understands the hearts of men. The second meaning is that of the congregation of all who are baptised in Christ, who have not openly denied him nor been lawfully and by his Word excommunicated. This meaning of “Church” corresponds to its status in this life in that in it the good are mixed with the evil.
The invisible Church is first and foremost the "communion of saints" of the Apostles' Creed. It is the fellowship of the true believers who really believe in Christ the Head and his Word from the heart and exercise true Spirit wrought charity towards one another. The reason why this fellowship is invisible is because of the fact that it is a fellowship of the true believers from the heart and only God alone can discern the heart. What we on this side of heaven can see are only the outward words and actions but we cannot pry into the heart or, in the words of Queen Elizabeth I, make windows into man's souls. It is important to keep this reason in mind in order to distinguish it from other concepts of the invisible Church.
The invisible Church is distinguished from the visible Church in that the visible Church consists of outward actions and words, actions such as baptism, profession of faith, empirically discernible works of charity, etc. One must note very carefully that the Protestant doctrine of the visible Church is not identified with any institution or system of canon law or whatever. The visible Church is simply the outward fellowship of the baptised and professing Christians who have not done anything (outwardly at least) inconsistent with the Word of God. The visible Church has often been described as an "outward sign" of the invisible Church in that it is a good indicator, but by no means an infallible one, of the true communion of the saints.
The Protestant doctrine of the visible Church is, ironically, not very visible. You cannot point to a single institution or office or corporation and say, there is the visible Church, nor does it provide a simple formula which can mechanically pick them out. The visible Church simply refers to those who outwardly profess Christ, are baptised, and behave consistently with the Bible. But who they are and how to determine what "behave consistently with the Bible" means requires engagement with the particulars. There is no simple mechanical formula which can immediately identify who they are.
The doctrine of the invisible Church in Protestantism would go through some evolution in Britain as the Reformation developed there. Later on, especially in the Westminster Presbyterian system and all their heirs, the invisible Church would become identified with the sum of the elect. We however will discuss alternative notions of the invisible Church at greater length when we discuss high church conceptions.
Grappling with the Fact of Change and the Fact of Plurality
One of the most common apologetic point urged by high church Christians against Protestantism is that Protestants have changed the faith or deviated from tradition. Implicit in this charge of course is the premise that their churches and their traditions are unchanging and have remained the same today as it has been since the time of the Apostles.
In the post-Reformation age Jacques-Bénigne Bossuet (1627-1704) was quite strident on this point and represented the French traditionalist position. As the Anglican theologian William Witt helpfully summarises:
Against Protestantism, which, Bossuet argued in his History of the Variations of the Protestant Churches was nothing but a history of incompatible variations, Bossuet insisted that any variation in religious belief is an indication of error. The Tridentine position was that the faith had been delivered to the Church by Christ complete and entire. The Church had preserved the faith without change. Any admission of change was heresy... For Bossuet, the doctrine of the two natures had to have been revealed by Christ and believed by the Catholic Church from the time of the apostles.
The problem was that as early as the 15th century the Roman Catholics realised that the Donation of Constantine, which played a huge role in establishing papal supremacy, was a forgery. Then in the 19th century modern historical methods have more or less discredited the idea that the beliefs of contemporary Roman Catholics or the Eastern Orthodox could be so simply identified with the beliefs of the Apostles or the Apostolic church. There arose the enormous difficulty of trying to demonstrate how distinctive high church beliefs like the Marian dogmas or Transubstantiation or papal supremacy or ecumenical conciliar infallibility existed right from the start.
The 19th century British Roman Archbishop, Cardinal Henry Edward Manning, was quite brutally honest about this difficulty. He writes in The Temporal Mission of the Holy Ghost:
The other objection I shall touch but briefly. It is often said that Catholics are arbitrary and positive even to provocation in perpetually affirming the indivisible unity and infallibility of the Church, the primacy of the Holy See, and the like, without regard to the difficulties of history, the facts of antiquity, and the divisions of Christendom. It is implied by this that these truths are not borne out by history and fact: that they are even irreconcilable with it: that they are no more than theories, pious opinions, assumptions, and therefore visionary and false.
We very frankly accept the issue. No Catholic would first take what our objectors call history, fact, antiquity and the like, and from them deduce his faith...
(bold and underline mine)
The point is that in the end nobody, at least nobody with a proper command of church history, believes that their church today, in visible outward terms, is the same as the apostolic church in terms of both belief or practice. The Eastern Orthodox theologian Georges Florovsky condemns what he calls "a harmful primitivism" in the Vincentian Canon to believe only what has "always" been believed.
What does this discussion on the fact of change have to do with the visibility of the Church? It boils down to the incompatibility of two claims:
(1) My Church does not Change.
(2) My Church is Substantially Visible
However, if one accepts that in historical and empirical terms there is a difference between one's church's past and one's church's present, then the two claims are incompatible. One can maintain that one's Church does not change, but must sacrifice the visibility of the Church and not identify the Church with every visible act or writing of the Church. The alternative is to maintain that the Church is substantially visible but deny that there has been any visible change. This alternative however is basically untenable in the light of what we know now about the writings of the early church and in the light of the historical facts and empirical differences.
Roman Catholicism has in fact always implicitly accepted the fact that the Church is not as visible as they would like it to be by the way they have attempted to account for their present day doctrines and practices. Following the tradition of Bossuet, who insisted that any admission of change was anathema, his tradition basically posited some "unwritten oral tradition" going back to the apostle's time whereby all the present day unchanging Roman Catholic distinctives are transmitted. The "unwritten oral tradition" theory however, by virtue of being unwritten, saves the continuity of the Church at the expense of its visibility. Nobody obviously can discover or read these "unwritten oral tradition" simply because they are unwritten. The "unwritten oral tradition" theory has today virtually no supporters amongst Roman Catholics for it is as crazy as the "primitive baptist" theory that their denomination has always existed from the start and has survived under the radar of history, invisible to historical records after the Constantinian corruption, only to emerge into public view after the Reformation.
Two Theories of Doctrinal Development
Now every side agrees that the beliefs and the practices of the Church today cannot simply be identified with the beliefs and practices of the Church in the Apostle's time. The Church at the Apostle's time is not visibly the same as the Church at the time of Constantine, nor is it the same as the Church at the Middle Ages nor at the Reformation nor at the 19th century nor today. The history of the Church consists of thousands upon thousands upon thousands of ecclesiastical acts, decrees, institutions, canons, writings, whether by institutional corporations or by individual "canonical" theologians, and often in contradiction with one another. In order to maintain the claim that the Church does not change, some visibility must be sacrificed. Some empirically discernible ecclesiastical acts or writings must be denied to immediately belong to the essence of the visible Church, others cannot be straightforwardly read off but needs to be "rightly interpreted", at some theoretical level, to cohere with present beliefs and practices.
So among these masses upon masses of empirical facts and events, only some of them can be legitimately identified with that of the never changing visible Church. The "true" visible Church is but a subset of the totality of church history. The question is, how do you determine which parts of visible church history legitimately belongs to the Visible Church?
It is here where we come to the (in)famous theory of doctrinal development. However it is important to distinguish between two theories of doctrinal development. One we shall call the theory of doctrinal deduction which was espoused by Aquinas, Duns Scotus, the Jesuits after the Reformation, and by the Magisterial Protestants. The other we shall simply call theory of historical development which is basically Cardinal Newman's development by historical narrative.
Let's recall the Protestant doctrine of the visible Church. The visible Church is the sum of the baptised, wherever they maybe, who outwardly profess Christ and behave consistently with the Word of God. The determination therefore as to which acts and writings in Church history properly belongs to the visible Church boils down to a simple criteria: It must be consistent with the Word of God.
The fact that what Christians believed at the 4th or the 12th or the 16th or the 21st century are not identical with one another is not a problem on the theory of doctrinal deduction. The theory of doctrinal deduction simply says that we all maintain the same faith, practices, and beliefs, simply because we all accept beliefs and practices which can be deduced logically from the Scriptures. Doctrine "develops" or "grows" as a result of logical deduction from divinely revealed Scriptural premises. As John Duns Scotus argued in his Ordinatio concerning the sufficiency of Scripture:
...many necessary truths are not expressed in Sacred Scripture, even if they are virtually contained there, as conclusions in principles; in [circa] the investigation of which the labor of the doctors and expositors was useful.
It is true that there are many doctrines confessed by the church later which were not explicitly expressed in the Scriptures, but they were brought out later, not by a historical process, but as a result of a logical deduction, "as conclusions in principles". The results of these deductions were later codifed in ecclesiastical documents and writings of respected theologians. The exact same principle is operative in the Presbyterian Westminster Confession which states:
The whole counsel of God concerning all things necessary for His own glory, man's salvation, faith and life, is either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture...
As Archbishop Cranmer has already pointed out, the visible Church however is mixed with the good and the evil. Church institutions, officers, clerics, councils and most of all, Christians themselves, have erred in practice and legislation and espoused false beliefs. However out of this mess of church history, the legitimate visible Church belongs to those particular acts and teachings of particular Christians which are consistent with and logically deducible from the Word of God.
Now before we come to Newman's theory proper, we must make one thing clear. Newman's theory is not the theory of doctrinal development by logical deduction. In 1958 a letter by Newman previously unpublished was made known containing the following illuminating passage:
I conceive then that the Depositum is in such sense committed to the Church or to the Pope, that when the Pope sits in St. Peter’s chair, or when a Council of Fathers & doctors is collected round him, it is capable of being presented to their minds with that fullness and exactness, under the operation of supernatural grace, (so far forth and in such proportion of it as the occasion requires,) with which it habitually, not occasionally, resided in the minds of the Apostles;—a vision of it, not logical, and therefore consistent with errors in reasoning of fact in the enunciation, after the manner of an intuition or an instinct. Nor do those enunciations become logical, because theologians afterwards can reduce them to their relations to other doctrines, or given them a position in the general system of theology. To such theologians they appear as deductions from the creed or formularized deposit, but in truth they are original parts of it, communicated per modum unius to the Apostles’ minds, & brought to light to the minds of the Fathers of the Council, under the temporary illumination of Divine Grace.
- Journal of Theological Studies (9 [1958], 324-335)
(bold and underline mine)
Newman here is quite explicit, the Pope, council fathers and doctors, etc, receive their theological insight into the apostolic faith, not by logically deducing them from apostolically revealed premises, but almost like in some kind of prophetic vision, an instinct, an intuition, as it were, moved by the Holy Ghost. This is why one can teach, for example, that the doctrine of papal supremacy is still a legitimate doctrine despite it having developed out of false deductions from the Donation of Constantine.
Naturally once one has severed doctrinal development from logical deductions, the problem arises as to how exactly do they identify "developments"? Remember, there are masses and masses of writings, arguments and claims, only some of which are legitimate "developments" and others are deviations or "corruptions" from the faith. We need a method or a criteria for distinguishing the two. The theory of doctrinal deduction proposes logical deduction from Scripturally revealed premises as one such criteria.
Several options are ruled out at once, they cannot claim that something is a development by virtue of "tradition" because we already accept ex hypothesi that there are doctrinal developments/changes which are not handed down or passed down in tradition in its present form.
They also cannot claim that we simply "look at history". History, in the modern scientific sense, first and foremost attempts to discern the shape of primary facts and events through record and relic, e.g. finding out what happened and who did what and said what by determining reliability of witnesses, sifting through biases, finding collaborating evidence, etc. That does not by itself tell give you a criteria for evaluating the "legitimate" church events from "illegitimate" church events which would require a higher level of evaluation. A historian can of course frame a narrative and pass evaluative judgements on ecclesiastical acts and events, but there is nothing theologically special or significant about the historian's own opinion. He is not divinely inspired and nobody believes that a historian possesses any normative theological authority which gives him the right to pass substantive theological judgements on which events or acts or writings constitutes the legitimate visible Church and which does not. What we need is a theological principle to determine which historical events are properly developments and which are not.
Problems with the Theory of Historical Development
How then can we find the gem of the "true" visible Church from the masses of masses of particular ecclesiastical acts and writings? Ultimately the high church believer frames a coherent narrative or "story" of the visible Church. The story weaves various carefully selected elements of church history from the beginning to present arrangements. A complicated theory or explanation often accompanies their narrative to justify their selection of particular events or acts as well as their interpretation of various writings.
The first problem should be quite obvious. The account is circular. The narrative is framed precisely to lead to their denomination's present beliefs and practices. Both Eastern Orthodox and Roman Catholics can, and have, framed historical narratives leading to the development of their denomination. They cannot very well use a narrative which presupposes the end point to justify the end point. More seriously for our present discussion, they cannot exclude Protestants from also framing a historical narrative leading to the development of their denominational distinctives. The apologetic rhetoric against Protestantism for "changing" the faith would be seriously damaged if high church denominations cannot find a more concrete and non-arbitrary way of deciding between changes which they would want to call "developments" and changes which they want to condemn as "deviations".
Or perhaps there is some intrinsic quality to narratives which allows people to adjudicate which is the "better" narrative? Here we must not be mislead by the language of "growth" and "development". We can determine the quality of development of, say, trees and animals, because we have seen many examples, from start to finish, of the development and growth of their species. Thus we can tell what a healthy plant looks like as opposed to a diseased plant, or a stunted plant, or a plant which has died prematurely, because we have seen many examples of the same plant from start to full maturity.
Unfortunately in our present case we have only one unique history of the Church and one singular Holy Catholic Church, which history has not even ended yet. It is not like we have examples of many churches from start to finish and thus am able to determine the quality of growth and development of Church to see which ones are "legitimate" developments and which ones are not. And of course if we take the end point my present denominational arrangement that would once more collapse back into circularity.
The Invisible Ideal Church of the Academic's Invention
The legitimacy of every Church is derivative of its apostolic credentials. There has to be a non-arbitrary and objective criteria for determining such apostolic legitimacy. The theory of doctrinal deduction from apostolically revealed premises, as recorded in the Scriptures, provides such a criteria. The Apostolic tradition as infallibly witnessed by the Scriptures remains the foundation of the Church, and the growth and development of the visible Church occurs in concert with our reason which draws out the logical implications of the divinely inspired apostolic premises infallibly witnessed by Scripture.
The "Church" of the high church advocate unfortunately simply "floats" in platonic space as it were. The historical narrative, which identifies the "true" Church, amidst the masses and masses of empirical facts, is essentially circular and self-justifying. It is tethered to no actual concrete foundation or standard of evaluation. Its plausibility is not derivative of any concrete fact but based on some vague "aesthetic sense" of which narrative "tells a better story".
The problems of doing ecclesiology by narrative is manifest. It is even more invisible than Protestantism's visible Church. Protestantism has a visibly discernible criteria for evaluating the legitimate visible church acts and writings among the masses of ecclesiastical phenomena, just search the Scriptures. The high church Christian has no such concrete visible criteria, the church literally exists only in tale. They cannot say, just listen to the Pope because popes has said many things and sometimes in contradiction of one another, they cannot say listen to the councils because there are many many many different councils also in contradiction of one another. They cannot say just listen to your priest because your priest might be of dubious "orthodoxy" even if he is canonically ordained. The criteria whereby they evaluate the legitimacy of various ecclesiastical phenomena is the narrative. But the boundaries of this narrative itself is nebulous, vague, and essentially open-ended.
To be sure this ideal platonic church of tale touches empirical ecclesiastical realities at certain points. However there is no visible foundation or criteria for determining when and where it so touches. It seems to merely float in and out of visible reality at random, otherwise it remains essentially invisible. The only way to "catch" the church is through the sheer existential human act of special narration for the narrative alone can identify the "true" visible Church. Without this narrative, no one would know where is the true visible Church. This is virtually gnosticism about the Church, known only to those with the special aesthetic nose to sniff it out in platonic space.
Perhaps the great irony is that the the Roman Catholics used to charge the Lutheran Reformers for precisely postulating such a platonic church. As Philip Melanchthon objects in his Apology of the Augsburg Confession:
Neither, indeed, are we dreaming of a Platonic state, as some wickedly charge, but we say that this Church exists, namely, the truly believing and righteous men scattered throughout the whole world. We are speaking not of an imaginary Church, which is to be found nowhere; but we say and know certainly that this Church, wherein saints live, is and abides truly upon earth; namely, that some of God's children are here and there in all the world, in various kingdoms, islands, lands, and cities, from the rising of the sun to its setting, who have truly learned to know Christ and His Gospel.
The only way in which the high church apologist manages to get away with many claims about the "Church" is simply due to a lack of interrogation of the term. But the minute you ask, "But what is the Church? How do you determine its boundaries? By what criteria do you decide who are the "Fathers"? What is Holy Tradition and how is it determined?" the entire rhetoric collapses. The "Church" rapidly vanishes into idealised platonic space. More relevantly to their apologetic, there is no qualitative distinction between their position and the Protestants. Both high church denominations and Protestantism admits to the fact of visible change in the history of the church, both have their own ways of accounting for it via historical narrative.
Conclusion: The Protestant Confidence in Reason
We have seen how the high church apologetic claims, that their Church is both visible and unchanging, are incompatible. We have also seen how a sufficiently nuanced high church ecclesiology by historical development causes the Church to vanish into platonic invisibility, discernible only to those with the right aesthetic nose to identify the correct ecclesiastical narrative.
This is not to deny the initial plausibility of the charge of Protestant denominational or doctrinal "chaos". However, our doctrine of the invisible Church already gives us some comfort here. The Protestant doctrine of the invisible Church is not the high church platonic invisible Church. The invisible Church is the fellowship of saints who truly believe in Christ according to God's word from the heart. We may not have access to the hearts of others, but we have immediate, though not perfect, access to our own. Everyone who believes in Christ as proclaimed in the Scriptures directly lays hold of Christ. In laying hold of Christ, we are already incorporated in the spiritual fellowship of the saints. From this foundation of faith in Christ, we exercise charity towards our neighbours and fellow Christians in this world, growing in communion with one another. This communion is not visibly perfect nor will it be complete in this life, however it is constantly being renewed and nourished by faith in Christ as witnessed by the Scriptures. If the communion of saints consists of faith in Christ and concrete exercises of charity according to God's word, then the fact of institutional or denominational differences means nothing to us. What is important is God's Word and our faith in Christ as revealed there and our exercises of charity in according to it. Institutional apparatus are merely after the fact prudential arrangement which constitutes no part of the essence of the invisible Church, or even the visible Church!
Ultimately the Protestant believes that everyone can, and ought to, employ their own reason to search the Scriptures for themselves and form their own judgement to the satisfaction of their own conscience. Let us not forget what Luther actually said that the Diet of Worms: "Unless I am convinced by the testimony of the Holy Scriptures or by evident reason..." We have a high view and confidence in our reason's ability to discern and search out the truth in the Bible. To be sure it is not infallible, but we deny that it is utterly blind or useless and we affirm that it is sufficiently reliable to attain unto those truths of Scripture necessary for salvation. We object to any epistemology which rejects the common world of objective truth, including Scripture, as not accessible to our natural reason and would have us simply make leaps of existential decisions of faith unto idealised narratives dwelling in platonic heavens.
We are also not worried about our doctrinal differences for we affirm that ultimately faith is faith in a person, Jesus Christ, not a set of propositions. The Scriptures are witnesses to a concrete historical reality and person, not just a reporter of propositions. Through the Scriptures we can directly lay hold of a person and worship Him. We employ our reason after the fact to explain our belief and make sense of him in discursive propositional form. To be sure some propositions would have greater effect upon our practical piety than others, however ultimately we hold that in this life we are simul iustus et peccator, at the same time justified and sinner.
We are justified through faith alone in Christ, a person. Yet we are still sinners, and not only in deed but also in our imperfect understanding, thoughts and occasional erroneous beliefs. While we bring to bear the best of our abilities to live the Christian life and discern the Scripture's meaning, the satisfaction of our conscience is the end point of our best endeavours. At the utmost limits of our efforts we can only plead, our best works are but filthy rags, have mercy upon me a sinner!
Addendum:
I found this passage by the German Lutheran theologian, Hermann Sasse, to be particularly relevant to our discussion.
Where was the papal church before there was a papacy? Whether any church has its origin in the church of the New Testament or not is simply a matter of faith. The Baptists and the Disciples of Christ make the claim that their church was the church at the time of the New Testament. Our Lutheran fathers never had the idea that they were founding a new church. They were of the conviction that Christ's one church was being renewed with the pure apostolic doctrine in contrast with Rome, which had fallen away from the Gospel.
These are matters of faith, and one should not try to settle them by appeals to historical proofs. How this goes may be seen in the polemics between the Anglicans and English Roman Catholics. Both attempt to prove that they are the legitimate continuation of the medieval church in England. We Lutherans have no part to play in that sort of dispute, although it has often been suggested that we should.
To provide the proof for the identity of any historical construction is always enormously problematical. One may, for example, speak of an English nation and of a German nation that continue through the centuries. But if one looks more closely, one notices how great are also the differences. In what sense are the English people of Henry VIII's time identical with the 10 times as many English people today? In what sense are today's German people identical with the people of Luther's time? Was it anything more than a fiction when it was thought that the Holy Roman Empire of Byzantium was living on in the empire of Charlemagne and the German empire of Otto the Great until it expired in 1806? Is there more of an identity between the Roman Church of today and the church of Peter's day than there is between the Roman Empire of the first century and the Holy Roman Empire around 1800? It has been observed that the difference between the church before Constantine and after Constantine is greater than the difference in the Western Church before and after the Reformation. Here the historical proofs of identity simply fail.
-Apostolic Succession (Letters to Lutheran Pastors No.14 April 1956)
0
0
69
Dominic Foo
Feb 02, 2024
In Politics and Current Affairs
In Singapore the Malays actually have a constitutionally privileged position. A constitutional provision literally states:
The Government shall exercise its functions in such manner as to recognise the special position of the Malays, who are the indigenous people of Singapore, and accordingly it shall be the responsibility of the Government to protect, safeguard, support, foster and promote their political, educational, religious, economic, social and cultural interests and the Malay language.
How does this work out practically? The Malays, as "sons of the soil" are entitled to certain welfare and benefits, this is in addition to including mandatory minority representation in politics. However, unlike in Malaysia, there is no positive discrimination for admission in universities, job qualifications, etc. Thus, Singapore's approach here is just to give the minorities goodies, and political representation, but pure meritocracy in those aspects of society where merit is necessary, like university admissions and job qualifications. This appears to me to be wise, you can always afford to give minorities goodies, and even political representation and a voice, but you can't screw around with things which require competence and ability regardless of race.
The problem here in relation to the US is that, by and large, even among the conservative and "based" right, overwhelmingly admits that African Americans have been wrongly enslaved and racially discriminated against. Except for the very edgy few, nobody else is going to concede the righteousness of the enslavement of Africans, nor the justice of enforcing racial segregation by law. GIVEN this overall "moral consensus" among Americans, that the African Americans, as a people, have been wronged, how can American society move forward?
The "consensus" approach of the 60s-90s has been the "individualistic colour blind" approach, just ignore race, forget about the past injustice and treat it as nothing. They just hope to erase the memory of the past. But as the recent debates over "the purpose of the system is what it does"(https://fiddlersgreene.substack.com/p/posiwid-and-the-moderate-liberal), it is clear that this approach has failed spectacularly. You may coyly pretend that the pure meritocratic system you want to set up is colourblind and doesn't discriminate by race, but you foresee that the outcome would disproportionately disadvantage the African Americans. Eventually, like in Exodus 21:28-29 where your ox has a history of goring people and you took no steps to confine it, you will be responsible the next time it kills someone. Once your history of "colourblind" meritocracy repeatedly generates racially disproportionate outcomes, you must take responsibility for it and not coyly pretend that you didn't intend it to. Thus, liberals, and even many conservatives, who had believed that colour blind policies would lead to equal outcomes, and yet were repeatedly disappointed, inevitably turn to other more "woke" measures and explanations.
Thus, given the "moral consensus" mentioned earlier, this collective guilt which is conceded needs to be dealt with. The history and guilt of the passed needs to be cleansed as it were and the legacy of wrongs righted. It is here where I think conservative Americans needs to be wiser about reparations and how it can be useful, but not allowed themselves to be suckered by the left into a perpetual cash cow. Here is my own suggestion:
A Proposal for a "Zacchaeus Day Constitutional Amendment" for Reparations of all Unjust Enrichment by Slavery and the Remission of all Liabilities, Guilt, and Responsibilities for the Effects of the Same
(1) A Committee for Reparations for Slavery shall be formed, which members shall be nominated by the President and appointed with the consent of the Senate, which shall calculate the value of unjust enrichment which the slave masters have derived from their slaves, adjusted for inflation, and multiplied four fold. All descendants of black slaves in America may claim an equal portion of this wealth.
(2) All laws, orders, ordinances for positive discrimination in employment and educational admissions shall be illegal.
(3) A Federal Holiday, a "Zacchaeus Day", shall be celebrated annually and be made a public holiday. The President shall make a public proclamation which shall include a reading from Luke 19:1-10 and Matthew 18:21-35, and shall also include the following statement:
In the Year of our Lord 2---, the United States of America has corrected a grave injustice, which had plagued this nation since its founding, by offering Reparations to the descendants of those who have suffered as a result of the unjust enrichment of the slavers. From that year forward, the Reparations having been offered and given, the debts, guilt, liabilities, and responsibilities for the ancestors of those who have benefitted from such unjust enrichment is remitted and discharged in its entirety without reservation and remainder, and here now declare the reconciliations of both the sinner and their victims, and commend and urge, the forgiveness of the same, as our Lord and Saviour himself commands of the unforgiving servant. And by this memorial, we strike from the memory of all the bitterness of the remembrance of the past, bring no more these sins of the past to charge, and urge us all to strive this day forward, to work to free the captives, to liberate the oppressed, and release those who have been unjustly and unmercifully bound and crushed.
Thus, this proposal prevents reparations from becoming a perpetual cash cow, it is clear that the reparations is for a once for all absolution of the sins of the past with no possibility of bringing it back up, it is not just a blind throwing of cash just because one feels bad about it. Once the guilt and memory of the past is dealt with, then one can move on and focus on the present social, cultural, and inherited characteristics of African Americans which makes them remain in their present living standards and circumstances, and take future efficacious measures to raise them up, instead of just futily throwing cash and honours at them whenever one just feels guilty.
Given the failures and collapse of racial blindness policies and fixes, it is time for Americans to move on from that era and deal with racial issues with their eyes wide open and without dissimulation and coyness about unequal racial realities and their historical causes.
0
0
26
Dominic Foo
Jan 16, 2024
In Christian Theology
Another one of my favourite "resurrection speculations" is the idea of doppelgangers which I've written before in my previous profile. In this day and age as more and more people adopt dysgenic policies, and a lot of beautiful and great qualities are "wasted", my theory about doppelgangers is an odd comfort to me.
There's a philosophical debate about Leibniz's identity of indiscernibles and "haecceitism". The debate has to do with whether we are simply nothing more than a bundle of properties or is there an individual essence of being a particular individual even if one shares all the same properties as another. Suppose there were two men, John and Tom, and they look identical, have the exactly same physical and even mental properties, being 1.7 meters, weighing 70kg, etc, etc, right down to the last atom. However, is there a remainder individual property of "being John" which is distinct from the property of "being Tom"?
I am not so much interested in this philosophical debate but in the idea that there are certain "individual" properties, say, the property of looking like Cate blanchett, which can be "recycled" throughout time and even across space. Of course this isn't restricted to merely looks, we can think of any other qualities or ability, the genius of an Einstein, the musical talent of a Mozart, etc, which can also be "recycled". The basis of my speculation is what a friend of mine once said about how many homeless people in America have "wasted" their life, and that if they cleaned up they could actually look ravishing, etc. Let's assume that these properties and gifts are valued by God and God doesn't want to "waste" them on people who have wasted their lives.
So, let's say we have the property of looking like "Tom Cruise", and whereas that property is wasted on the actual Tom Cruise who is part of some weird scientology church, God "recycles" that property in some other man somewhere in the world, whether in our time or not, who grows up and lives an unassuming Christian life whose looks is not wasted but has brought enjoyment presumably to his wife. Again, this point can be made without loss of generality for any other "good" qualities, musical, artistic, logical talents, etc, which instead of being wasted in the godless who will simply go into the great incinerator of hell, God simply recycles those property back into this world until it gets the "right" combination of worldly talent and spiritual communion and then it gets incorporated into the Kingdom of Heaven for communion of saint's perpetual enjoyment.
If this sounds a little like the Chinese-Buddhist cosmology where people retain their substantive characteristics and go through the wheel of reincarnation over and over and over again until they "get it right" and escape into heaven, then I suppose there is something to that. Except on my view, since I am an annihilationist, the damned don't have immortal souls which remains in hell forever, rather they're simply decimated and decays into the void while God simply retains their "good" properties and throws it back into the world until it hits the right combination and gets into heaven.
I think there's really something to this idea, and it sort of feeds into the Platonic (gasp!) conviction that God does redeem the Good, True, and Beautiful things of theworld, and eventually they will get all incorporated into the communion of saints for the saint's pleasure.
1
0
27
Dominic Foo
Jan 13, 2024
In Politics and Current Affairs
"A government of laws and not of men" was the expressed ideal of the founding of the United States. I'm not sure how they would feel about the US today being a government of algorithms and regulations, mechanically followed and implemented by drones of civil servants in the deep state, where literally "no men" now govern.
I alluded before to an obscure 18th century political philosopher and economist, Josiah Tucker, who posits an interesting via media between Locke's government by consent and Filmer's patriarchy. Tucker observes that many nations are founded by "great men" and heroes of the first order, but obviously they cannot be sustained by a succession of great men, who are not in abundant supply, but needs be able to function with men of modest or average ability. Thus, they need to set up systems and practices which can be run by less than stellar geniuses. The analogy he uses is that of Newton and Boyle, who were scientists of the first rate, but they need to lay down practice guidelines for doing physics which men of lesser ability should be able to continue the work and derive the lesser theorems.
Yet, with the rule of law turned into the supreme principle of a society, who are now witnessing the apotheosis of a society of "the government of laws and not of men", a society run by pure algorithms and regulations, where no one has agency, everyone just mechanically following the prior procedures. To bring this to the analogy of planes, obviously you do not need every pilot to be a software engineer, to be able to design the autopilot system itself. Pilots of modest, if any, computing abilities should be able to operate the autopilot system. But eventually you do need a team of software engineers to be able to update, fix, and patch the autopilot system. You do not need heroes of the first rate in every throne or presidency, but you still need them in sufficient numbers to constantly review and renew the system.
It is perhaps a portent of things to come when in a British "Yes, Prime Minister" episode, while Hacker was complaining about declining education standards and how people can't do arithmetic anymore, Sir Humphrey challenged Hacker to do a complex sum, and when Hacker could not come up with the answer on the spot, Humphrey just said, what's the point of learning this when you have a pocket calculator to do it for you? The quintessential civil service mindset, you don't need to know its inner logic or purpose when you can just operate a machine. This was in the 1980s, can you imagine how this has affected an entire generation of educators and statesmen, who see no point in passing on "useless" knowledge like the inner logic of arithmetic since you can just rely on calculators?
So for the US ship of state and ruling/leadership class, not only are the software engineers dead, so are the pilots, nobody knows how to do the arithmetic anymore, they just rely on calculators. Nobody is taught the higher principles and inner logic of institutions or civic practices, they just need the HR manual. Nobody knows the inner logic, design, or purpose of the core corporate, civic, or political institutions of the nation. I remember when I was in university in my first calculus course, and we grumbled about the novel epsilon-delta proofs for limits, and my professor lectured us saying, don't complain about needing to do proofs, you can't always do computation problems, my computer can compute faster than you. But nobody is taught "useless" proofs anymore to understand the why of the algorithms, everyone is just running on autopilot, executing algorithms and practices laid down by greater men who once upon a time understood its inner logic and design, but nobody really knows how to actually govern an empire as complex as America anymore, all they know how to do is to hit enter and run the program, and occasionally tinker around the easier to comprehend parts, like a causal gamer trying to make a mod. But nobody knows how to program a game anymore.
The men of great ability, the Newtons, Watsons, and Bismarcks, are all speed running games on Youtube, their top physicists and rocket scientists are employed by financial corporations and bankers to design ever more elaborate "financial products" or "financial instruments". The box ticking HR and DEI culture means that key corporations and institutions are staffed likewise by people who can run the algorithm and regulations, but nobody knows why it works and for what purpose.
An "autopilot" polity means that nobody knows what to do in extraordinary or special scenarios, when you need to redesign the program or system to meet an novel situation. From Afghanistan to Ukraine, to Israel and now the Suez, nobody has a bloody clue what to do when order breaks down and people aren't just following precedent anymore. As US ship of state paralyses into sclerosis, as Pax Americana declines, more and more of the US state departments will be increasingly staffed by Warhammer 40k administratum drones. People working at soul crushing cogitators crunching numbers and submitting reports which nobody reads, which purpose nobody knows, but which needs to go on just because it's how it's always done.
We frequently speak of how the US can't send a man to the moon anymore, but it is doubtful that the US can prosecute a complex operation even on earth. When George Bush launched his extremely ill-advised Operation Iraqi Freedom, it was a model of preparation, organisation, and planning of a thousand different actors and agencies in concert for a common goal. It is extremely doubtful that the modern US state is capable of something as complex as this today because there is nobody at home capable of such detailed organisation for a goal.
This problem is systematic and endemic, and I don't think the American ship of state, as a whole, can come back from this. I suppose, in a way, in their anxiety to prevent a king or emperor from rising, the Founders have achieved their dream of a government literally of laws, but where no men now governs. An autopilot society. The plane will still fly, the buttons still work, the navigation system still function, but God help the US once the program breaks down or encounters an unexpected situation and you need a real pilot to take the helm.
1
0
17
Dominic Foo
Jan 12, 2024
In Theological History&Tradition
Formulating the Conclusion
When I was studying mathematics in university, a professor once told us that half the proof of a mathematical theorem consists of formulating the given premises and the conclusion correctly. In discussions about papal primacy, or infallibility, it is often the case that the conclusion, or what is supposed to be proved, is not clearly formulated. However when it is, the deductive gap between the passages of Matthew 16:17-19, and the claims of the papacy, becomes self evident at once.
So what is the actual conclusion of the claim? What is it that is supposed to be proved? It is simply this:
For no one can be in doubt, indeed it was known in every age that the holy and most blessed Peter, prince and head of the apostles, the pillar of faith and the foundation of the catholic church, received the keys of the kingdom from our lord Jesus Christ, the saviour and redeemer of the human race, and that to this day and for ever he lives and presides and exercises judgment in his successors the bishops of the holy Roman see, which he founded and consecrated with his blood (Council of Vatican I)
Thus the conclusion in bold is that Peter "somehow" lives on in the bishop of Rome. And not only that, but that he lives on in the Bishop of Rome alone. As such we should not confuse this very specific and unique contention of Rome with other issues to do with apostolic succession or the preeminence of Rome or whatever. The contention here is a very specific one, the key upon which the whole claims rest: that Peter somehow lives on in the Bishop of Rome. What needs to be demonstrated is this transmigration or transfer of Peter's soul/spirit/life into the Bishop of Rome.
On St Peter Alone the Church is Built?
In various Roman Catholic theological literature there is often a very heavy emphasis upon demonstrating the primacy of St Peter the Apostle and his significance over the rest and that it is upon him alone that the Church is built. Proving the premise that St Peter is the foundation of the Church as per Matthew 16:17-19 is the first step towards demonstrating the truth claims of the papacy.
There is however a logical problem with the premise, a logical problem whereby even if it were proved does not lead to its desired conclusion and may ironically even undercut it.
For all the arguments about how St Peter is the Rock upon which Christ built his Church, the complete identification of Peter as the "Rock" would not lead to the desired conclusion because if St Peter himself alone was the foundation of the Church, then that would be so to the exclusion of the bishops of Rome!
If truly St Peter alone was so vital and significant to the foundation of the Church, then only he alone, and no one else, not even the Bishop of Rome, can possibly be the foundation of the Church. Who knows, maybe as an alternative scenario the glorified St Peter in heaven still rules the Church as its "rock" there, coordinating the efforts of angels, wielding the Keys, ruling and judging our prayers and causes in his glorified state. (After all, Roman Catholics believe in the living communion with past saints don't they? Why can't St Peter himself still be in active communion and leadership with the Church?) This would be the logical implication that the person of St Peter himself was alone the Rock upon which the Church was built.
So it cannot be Peter himself, strictly speaking, that is the foundation of the Church, but something about him, not him directly or personally, which would be passed on and continued beyond himself, which must be the rock of the Church.
Once however this modified premise is admitted, all the Roman Catholics efforts to demonstrate the primacy and importance of St Peter and him as the foundation of the Church vanishes into irrelevance. For the premise of the importance of St Peter would play no part at all in proving the claims of papacy if it logically closes in upon itself and cannot move beyond St Peter to the Bishop of Rome. It doesn't matter how important, or how foundational, St Peter is if this importance or foundation cannot move beyond his own person.
So there must be something about St Peter, something which can be separated from his person, and continued beyond him. What is this something?
Peter Himself or Petrine Faith?
Unfortunately it is by no means self-evident from the text of Matthew 16:17-19 that this something, which goes beyond St Peter, is a petrine spirit or liferather than St Peter's faith.
Now historically the Matthew 16 passages have been interpreted both ways to refer to Peter himself or a petrine faith. Exegetically I would say that the text does not decide one way or another. Even granting that St Peter, the person, was the Rock upon which the Church is built, the text does not tell us how this foundation or rock continues to persist after his death or get transferred around, whether in the form of a shared faith or in his own person. The issue has to be decided by theological rather than exegetical arguments.
Transmigration of Petrine Spirit to the Bishop of Rome?
But let us suppose, for the sake of argument, that Peter himself, his spirit or soul or whatever, after the death of the apostle, can be transferred around, and it is this transmigrated petrine spirit which would serve as the "foundation" or "rock" of the Church.
Let us recall what our conclusion is. The conclusion is that Peter himself or his Spirit/Soul/Life has been committed to the (1) Bishop of Rome (2) alone. The (2) is important as some of the Eastern Orthodox maintains that Peter's ministry has been committed to all bishops, or maybe the key patriarchies. As such, there are two claims which needs proving, that "Peter" has been in fact committed to the Bishop of Rome and that the Bishop of Rome alone possesses it and no one else.
It is here where the weakest link in the proof lies. The main problem is simply this: no theological mechanism has ever been explicitly proposed to explain how Peter, or his spirit or life or whatever, got transferred to the Bishop of Rome.
There are however two vague narratives which attempts to show how the Bishop of Rome possessed the Petrine office:
(1) The Episcopate of Rome possesses the Spirit of Peter by virtue of it being occupied by St Peter himself.
(2) The Episcopate of Rome possesses the Spirit of Peter by virtue of it being founded by St Peter himself.
It is important to note the difference between the two claims, the first narrative would require that St Peter be the first Bishop of Rome himself and then his successor literally took his place. The second narrative on the other hand doesn't require St Peter to occupy the Episcopate of Rome himself, Peter merely needs to create the Episcopate of Rome but not be the Bishop of Rome himself.
The first narrative suffers from two problems (1) historical and (2) theological. First, there is no evidence that St Peter was ever the first Bishop of Rome. As Hermann Sasse puts it:
The Roman list which Irenaeus brings up to his time has nothing but authentic names. Its age and authenticity are evidenced by the fact that, in contrast with the current official list of popes, Peter does not appear as the first Roman bishop. Peter and Paul are presented as the founders of the church in Rome. They are said to have committed the episcopate to Linus. the whole following list with its numbering of the third, sixth, and ninth bishop is constructed on the presupposition that Linus was the first bishop, and that Peter and Paul put him in this office.
-Apostolic Succession (Letters to Lutheran Pastors No.14 April 1956)
The blessed apostles [Peter and Paul], then, having founded and built up the Church, committed into the hands of Linus the office of the episcopate. Of this Linus, Paul makes mention in the Epistles to Timothy. To him succeeded Anacletus; and after him, in the third place from the apostles, Clement was allotted the bishopric... To this Clement there succeeded Evaristus. Alexander followed Evaristus; then, sixth from the apostles, Sixtus was appointed; after him, Telephorus, who was gloriously martyred; then Hyginus; after him, Pius; then after him, Anicetus. Sorer having succeeded Anicetus, Eleutherius does now, in the twelfth place from the apostles, hold the inheritance of the episcopate.
-Irenaeus: Against Heresies Book III; Chapter 3
Thus, the first Bishop of Rome was Linus, not St Peter. The succession list shifted over time to reflect St Peter as the first Bishop of Rome and thereby legitimise the idea that the Bishop of Rome itself directly possessed the Petrine office by virtue of being occupied by St Peter himself. But the historical evidence for such a thing is scant, if not virtually non-existent. While Irenaeus does speak of Peter and Paul founding the Church at Rome, there is no evidence that Peter was ever the Bishop of Rome. If founding a church makes one a bishop then Paul would also be a bishop of Rome. It seems however that this idea that Peter was the first bishop of Rome simply arose from a confusion of him having ordained the first bishop of Rome. However it should be obvious that to ordain a bishop of a locality is not to be the bishop of that locality.
Theologically even if we accept that St Peter was the first Bishop of Rome, it still does not follow that somehow St Peter serving as a bishop of a locality causes his spirit to be transferred to subsequent successors. Peter no doubt served as bishops in many other places, do all their successors possess the Petrine see as well? No theological mechanism has been proposed to explain how does being a bishop of a locality somehow cause the rock to magically transfer over to its successors.
Thus we are left with the other narrative to pass down the Petrine Spirit to the Bishop of Rome, that is, being founded and ordained by St Peter himself. However the theological problems are the same as the previous one, Peter also ordained and handed the episcopate of many other places to other people, and founded many other churches. Do all those other places and their episcopal sees possess the petrine spirit by virtue of being so founded and headed by St Peter? Again, no theological mechanism has been proposed to explain how does Peter founding a church or ordaining someone as bishop somehow transfer the rock or spirit over.
It is particularly significant that in Irenaeus's account he does not describe the episcopate of Rome as the "Chair of Peter" as later theologians would. He never says that the spirit/rock of Peter is somehow transferred over to the Roman see. Later theologians and "Church Fathers" would simply assert that the episcopate of Rome just is the Chair of Peter. Somehow it "just happened" without anyone explaining how it did.
The fact of the matter is that there is simply no ecclesiological, liturgical or theological principle which can connect the dots between the Petrine office and the Bishop of Rome alone. How the Petrine See gets passed on to the Bishop of Rome and him alone is the missing gap in the proof and I don't see anyway of making it work. Much more vitally, no Father, before Cyrian at least, has ever testified or witnessed to this transfer of the Petrine Spirit or the transmigration of this soul or the transfer of the Rock.
Conclusion: The Scandal of the Weakness of the Historical Connection
A few centuries ago the Jesuits debated the proposition: "It is not de fide that a particular person, e.g., Clement VIII, is the successor of St. Peter." The argument was that since we have no "de fide" certainty as to the historical fact as to whether a Pope validly baptised, canonically ordained, or elected without simony, therefore we can only have "moral certainty" and not "de fide" faith that a particular person now is Pope. The inquisition promptly intervened and, here's the interesting part, they judged that the proposition was "scandalous", but not heretical.
Do we not have sufficient grounds to draw a like inference, that it is not a "de fide" matter that the Petrine Spirit has been passed to the Bishop of Rome and him alone? This of course also does not include the other numerous problems which attends the doctrine of the papacy even if we could somehow miraculously demonstrate that the petrine spirit has been committed to the Bishop of Rome and him alone. What proof, historical or theological, could there be for the completely arbitrary restriction of the exercise of that Spirit only when he speaks of matter of faith and morals and only ex cathedra, which meaning and criteria no Roman Catholic could agree on?
It seems clear that in the end, for all the importance of St Peter, the ability of this claim to legitimise the transfer of the Petrine Spirit to the episcopate of Rome cannot even get off the ground. Perhaps we would be better off believing that St Peter really is ruling the Church from heaven.
0
0
16
Dominic Foo
Jan 07, 2024
In Apologetics
I haven’t done this sort of philosophical speculation in a while, but a friend reminded me of an idea or philosophical research route I used to have centered on the concept of the Laws of Nature.
If you look at the Stanford philosophy entry (https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/laws-of-nature/#Sys)there are several accounts of what constitutes a law of nature. The account which is of interest here is what is known as the “systems” account, where laws of nature are nothing more than deductive systems. To quote from them:
Deductive systems are individuated by their axioms. The logical consequences of the axioms are the theorems. Some true deductive systems will be stronger than others; some will be simpler than others. These two virtues, strength and simplicity, compete. (It is easy to make a system stronger by sacrificing simplicity: include all the truths as axioms. It is easy to make a system simple by sacrificing strength: have just the axiom that 2 + 2 = 4.) According to Lewis (1973, 73), the laws of nature belong to all the true deductive systems with a best combination of simplicity and strength. So, for example, the thought is that it is a law that all uranium spheres are less than a mile in diameter because it is, arguably, part of the best deductive systems; quantum theory is an excellent theory of our universe and might be part of the best systems, and it is plausible to think that quantum theory plus truths describing the nature of uranium would logically entail that there are no uranium spheres of that size (Loewer 1996, 112). It is doubtful that the generalization that all gold spheres are less than a mile in diameter would be part of the best systems. It could be added as an axiom to any system, but it would bring little or nothing of interest in terms of strength and adding it would sacrifice something in terms of simplicity.
I won’t go into the pros and cons of this account in detail except to note two points: One supposed strength of this account is that it keeps within Humean constrains in not postulating mysterious metaphysical entities like universals or causation, etc, and it also keeps within the limits of Humean supervenience: the doctrine that all there is in the world is a vast mosaic of local matters of particular fact, just one little thing and then another.
However it is one core objection to this account which is of interest to us:
Some argue that this approach will have the untoward consequence that laws are inappropriately mind-dependent in virtue of the account’s appeal to the concepts of simplicity, strength and best balance, concepts whose instantiation seems to depend on cognitive abilities, interests, and purposes. The appeal to simplicity raises further questions stemming from the apparent need for a regimented language to permit reasonable comparisons of the systems (Lewis 1983, 367.)
The objection here as such seems to be that the systems view of the laws of nature makes them look like “mind-dependent” or cognitive-shaped entities. But as theists, instead of viewing this as a modus tollens, we can see this as a modus ponens instead. Since the laws of nature are mind-dependent and cognitive-shaped entities, therefore we can infer that the universe is maintained by mind-dependent or cognitive-shaped entities (or entity!).
Indeed, it seems that once more, what Hume takes with one hand, all the mysterious metaphysical entities to account for laws of nature, universals and patterns, he gives back with the other hand, in making them all fundamentally dependent upon mind-shaped realities, i.e. God.
0
0
12
Dominic Foo
Jan 06, 2024
In Apologetics
Here I would make some personal observations about apologetics with my own experience in apologetics and doing mathematics, and then make some tangential notes about the presuppositionalist-evidentialist debate. I would like to, at the outset, make a distinction between believing in God versus the truth claims of Christian revelation, and be focused mainly on the former in the context of discussing reason and natural revelation.
I remember when I was in junior college, as an unbeliever, I had a classmate who is a Christian. When I first engaged him, I was extremely belligerent about it, and then he said one thing which changed the course of the entire conversation, and probably my whole life: "Believe whatever you want." That phrase, doubtless meant to end the conversation, made me reconsider my approach and whether I was being deliberately wilful about my objections and rejection of whatever my friend had to say. When I changed my attitude, that fundamental re-orientation, from wilfulness against belief to willingness to believe, led me to explore the reasons for God's existence, then Christiainity, at greater depth and eventually led me to where I am today.
However, I think there is an argument to be made that most of us may need such a "presuppositional" attitude, a willingness and desire to believe, maybe even through our whole lives. I think there are two considerations for this:
(1) The noetic effects of sin, the fundamental unwillingness to believe, is so deeply rooted that we will be fighting every attempt to believe at every step in the argument, at every premise of the proof. If we don't have the fundamental "presupposition" to believe, we will never overcome it. Take as an analogy the objective difference between man and woman, or the wickedness of even allowing adults to undergo sex change operations. Most people in the West are so viscerally and morally conditioned to reject both these propositions that they will fight every argument against these at every step of the way, otherwise they will be consider wicked and evil by others. If we don't demand that they suspend their visceral wilfulness for moral respectability for a moment, we will never get anywhere.
(2) For a proposition as simple and basic as God's existence, the proofs can be very complex. As I've argued in a previous post,(https://www.latitudeevangelicals.com/forum/apologetics/proving-the-obvious-things-the-via-media-between-the-presuppositionalists-and-evidentialists) there are many mathematical propositions which seems obvious to us, e.g. 1+1=2, the shortest distance between two points is a straight line, which can only be proven by very complex deductions based on even more abstract and elementary concepts. Who is going to master a battery of axiomatic set theoretic concepts just to prove that 1+1=2, or a battery of calculus or vectorial concepts just to prove that the shortest distance between two points is a straight line? The reality is that most of us go about our lives, "presupposing" these truths without bothering our heads to learn deductively and rigorously the proofs to these. Some of us who are not mathematically inclined will never be able to grasp such proofs, but it does not follow that they are not entitled to belief in those claims.
Thus, even if, in theory, you can prove propositions like 1+1=2 or the shortest distance between two points is a straight line, in practice, most of us are simply going to be presuppositionalists about those anyway.
In this light, does it follow that evidences, reasons, or arguments are useless? I don't think it does, but it will re-orient and delimit the role and place of evidence and reasons. I think the "proof" will look something more like this.
I remember when I was in university I had a tutorial assignment where one of the question was to find the volume of a doughnut (or torus), given the radius of the each segment of the doughnut and the ring itself as a whole.
We were supposed to use some integration method to find the volume, but it seemed to me that that wasn't necessary. All you had to do was to cut the doughnut and straighten it out into a cylinder, and it's a piece of cake to find the volume of a cylinder. It was obvious and self-evident to me that this cylinder would have the same volume as the doughnut. You can find the height of the cylinder by calculating the circumference of the doughnut and then the top and bottom area of the cylinder by calculating the cross-sectional area of the doughnut. So I completed this question in like literally three steps with basic algebra.
I was told to present my solution during class and after just jotting down the three step solution my professor was like, okay, your answer is right, but how does it work. When I explained that I simply cut the doughnut and straightened it out as a cylinder and calculated the volume, he got it but said that technically I assumed certain topological properties, e.g. that the volume is preserved under deformation which itself is a provable theorem. Later on, many many years later when I started reading calculus on my own, I came across the Theorem of Pappus which precisely proved that you can treat it like a cylinder by using the notion of moments and center of mass. (If you can't follow the screenshots, skip!)
I suggest this as an analogy to how we can understand knowledge of divine existence. There are three ways knowledge that the torus is equivalent in volume to a cynlinder can be acquired:
(a) It is just obvious and self-evident that they have the same volume. Many, or even most of us, will be able to simply imagine cutting the doughnut, straightening it out, and that it has the same volume. Likewise, to most people it should just be obvious and self-evident that there is a God.
(b) Rigorous proof and deductions. A few of us, who are more mathematically inclined, can learn calculus, moments, etc, etc, and then rigorously prove Pappus's Theorem for volumes and satisfy ourselves with such a deduction. Likewise, the divine existence and be demonstrated by very rigorous arguments and deductions from exquistely rarefied and defined philosophical concepts.
But what if you're a midwit, who is neither willing to grasp the "obvious" fact that a doughnut has the same volume as a cylinder, nor have the mental bandwidth or capacity for a rigorous calculus proof? Then we have the last option:
(c) Rhetorical illustrations which evidences or points to the truth. Here is a way to persuade someone that they have the same volume: Take a non-absorbent but flexible cylinder, then immerse it in a bucket of water. Measure the difference in volume, then take it out and bend the cylinder into a doughnut, then immerse it again into a bucket of water. Measure the difference in volume again. Compare and they should be the same. Is this a "proof"? Obviously not, physical experiments are never mathematical proofs, nor is this a completely rigorous proof (the results may vary depending on the material, water, temperature, etc, etc). But as an illustration, it suffices to be a token of the truth of the proposition, a promissory note as it were, that there is a proof to be had even if one lacks the conceptual toolbox to grasp it. Thus, we can have a lot of lay level apologetics or easy illustrations for God's presence in this world, which should satisfy the curious or the doubtful.
In the end, I suggest that there is something to be said for the Westminster Confession of Faith understanding of how "assurance of salvation" works, but as applied to knowledge and certainty of the divine existence:
This infallible assurance doth not so belong to the essence of faith, but that a true believer may wait long, and conflict with many difficulties, before he be partaker of it: yet, being enabled by the Spirit to know the things which are freely given him of God, he may, without extraordinary revelation in the right use of ordinary means, attain thereunto.
Thus, the "infallible assurance" or knowledge by rigorous proof, does not "belong to the essence of faith", and true believers may have to wait long, very long, (or even ever in this life!) before they can partake or acquire such rigorous proof. Yet, such rigorous infallible proofs are not required nor demanded by faith, and that is the essence of presuppositionalism: rigorous proofs come after presupposing or being willing to belief, and they are the gifts to some of the faithful after long and hard pursuit, but does not constitute the essence of faith. In the mean time, there are many (c) kind "evidences" and rhetorically helpful illustrations which can be given to point the way to the knowledge of faith.
1
0
125
Dominic Foo
Dec 31, 2023
In Theological History&Tradition
Since the question of the normative force of the Creeds have arisen, I thought it would be useful to discuss a little Aquinas's own take on the purpose of creeds and how he handles the creeds. His attitude and handling I think would prove rather illuminating as to how we should approach the creeds.
The relevant passage can be found in his Summa Theologica 2.2. Q1. Article 9. "Whether it is suitable for the articles of faith to be embodied in a symbol?"
Objection 1. It would seem that it is unsuitable for the articles of faith to be embodied in a symbol. Because Holy Writ is the rule of faith, to which no addition or subtraction can lawfully be made, since it is written (Deuteronomy 4:2): "You shall not add to the word that I speak to you, neither shall you take away from it." Therefore it was unlawful to make a symbol as a rule of faith, after the Holy Writ had once been published.
Objection 2. Further, according to the Apostle (Ephesians 4:5) there is but "one faith." Now the symbol is a profession of faith. Therefore it is not fitting that there should be more than one symbol.
His answer to these particular objection is of vital interest:
I answer that, As the Apostle says (Hebrews 11:6), "he that cometh to God, must believe that He is." Now a man cannot believe, unless the truth be proposed to him that he may believe it. Hence the need for the truth of faith to be collected together, so that it might the more easily be proposed to all, lest anyone might stray from the truth through ignorance of the faith. It is from its being a collection of maxims of faith that the symbol [The Greek symballein] takes its name.
Reply to Objection 1. The truth of faith is contained in Holy Writ, diffusely, under various modes of expression, and sometimes obscurely, so that, in order to gather the truth of faith from Holy Writ, one needs long study and practice, which are unattainable by all those who require to know the truth of faith, many of whom have no time for study, being busy with other affairs. And so it was necessary to gather together a clear summary from the sayings of Holy Writ, to be proposed to the belief of all. This indeed was no addition to Holy Writ, but something taken from it.
Reply to Objection 2. The same doctrine of faith is taught in all the symbols. Nevertheless, the people need more careful instruction about the truth of faith, when errors arise, lest the faith of simple-minded persons be corrupted by heretics. It was this that gave rise to the necessity of formulating several symbols, which nowise differ from one another, save that on account of the obstinacy of heretics, one contains more explicitly what another contains implicitly.
As such, the reason why creeds exist is a pragmatic one, so that "it might the more easily be proposed to all". He further expounds this point in his explanation of Objection 1 when he discusses how most people don't have the time to perform long study of the Scriptures, as such, a creed summarises Scriptural points or the "articles of faith"/"rule of faith" of Scripture for ease of access for the layman. Aquinas affirms that the creeds add nothing to the Scripture, properly the rule of faith, but they merely summarise Scripture points for the ease of the layman.
His answer to Objection 2 further illuminates the purpose of creeds, the reason why multiple creeds exist is as an answer to specific errors which arise. Creeds exist as such to answer those specific delimited errors as and when they arise in the course of the history of the Church.
However, what happens when the creeds themselves employ obscure terms which the layman no longer understand? Or where instead of summarising the contents of Scripture for ease of lay reference they themselves confuse the layman? (As we can see over the debates as to what "person" means.) A symbol which is meant to be a summary of Scripture obviously cannot perform that function when the symbol itself needs further explanation and long study to be understood. And if the specific errors to which they were framed has since long disappeared (who today argues the Arian point that there was a time when Christ was not? Or the Homoian point that Christ is merely like to the Father?), then what would be the point of the creed?
To answer this point I think it would be useful to observe a curious inconsistency in Aquinas in this Article. He gives the following general answer which seems to imply a general inerrancy concerning the creeds:
On the contrary, The universal Church cannot err, since she is governed by the Holy Ghost, Who is the Spirit of truth: for such was Our Lord's promise to His disciples (John 16:13): "When He, the Spirit of truth, is come, He will teach you all truth." Now the symbol is published by the authority of the universal Church. Therefore it contains nothing defective.
Whether we Protestants can believe this, Aquinas later gives a reply to an objection which seems to qualify this claim, or at least treat it with some irony:
Objection 5. Further, Augustine (Tract. xxix in Joan.) expounding the passage, "You believe in God, believe also in Me" (John 14:1) says: "We believe Peter or Paul, but we speak only of believing 'in' God." Since then the Catholic Church is merely a created being, it seems unfitting to say: "In the One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church."
[...]
Reply to Objection 5. If we say: "'In' the holy Catholic Church," this must be taken as verified in so far as our faith is directed to the Holy Ghost, Who sanctifies the Church; so that the sense is: "I believe in the Holy Ghost sanctifying the Church." But it is better and more in keeping with the common use, to omit the 'in,' and say simply, "the holy Catholic Church," as Pope Leo [Rufinus, Comm. in Sym. Apost.] observes.
Aquinas here incredibly concedes the basic objection: it would be unfitting to follow the letter of the creed to say that we believe "in" the Catholic Church, and that it would be better to just drop the "in" as has happened in common use. However to save the creed, he interpolates the creed by saying that it "really" means "I believe in the Holy Ghost who sanctifies the Church", not in the Church per se.
Thus despite what Aquinas claims about the infallibility of the Church and the lack of defects in creeds, he's not opposed to interpolating the creeds or outright simply dropping entire terms altogether if it were unfitting. Aquinas, had he engaged the prior creed of 325, would doubtless have approved of dropping the entire clause of the Son being begotten "from the substance of the Father".
As such, to return to the title of this post, are we bound to the letter of the creed? The structure of Aquinas argument suggests no. The creed exists primarily for a practical purpose: (1) for ease of reference for the layman of Scriptural articles of faith, (2) to answer specific heresies and problems. However, the moment the creeds are misleading, no longer summarise but confuse people as to the meaning of the Scriptures, he is happy to simply drop terms from the creeds. We are as such not bound to the letter of the creeds which value is justified by its function. The moment it ceases to perform its function, we may freely discard it.
Therefore to conclude, the creeds do not exist for themselves, they exist for a specific purpose, to summarise the articles of faith in Scripture and to answer specific heresies. The moment however the creed cease to perform this function, we can either attempt to reinterpret the creeds, as Aquinas has done, or we can just drop the terms altogether.
0
0
8
Dominic Foo
Dec 31, 2023
In Theological History&Tradition
Since the 39 Articles prescribes three ancient creeds for subscription, the Apostles, Nicene, and Athanasian, I think it would be good to examine the text of the Athanasian creed to note some of its more curious features, especially in the light of the classical theism debate.
The Athanasian Creed, for some reason, picks out certain features of divinity to indicate oneness of that specific feature. Here's the passage in question.:
The Father uncreate, the Son uncreate: and the Holy Ghost uncreate.
The Father incomprehensible, the Son incomprehensible: and the Holy Ghost incomprehensible.
The Father eternal, the Son eternal: and the Holy Ghost eternal.
And yet they are not three eternals: but one eternal.
As also there are not three incomprehensibles, nor three uncreated: but one uncreated, and one incomprehensible.
So likewise the Father is Almighty, the Son Almighty: and the Holy Ghost Almighty.
And yet they are not three Almighties: but one Almighty.
So the Father is God, the Son is God: and the Holy Ghost is God.
And yet they are not three Gods: but one God.
So likewise the Father is Lord, the Son Lord: and the Holy Ghost Lord.
And yet not three Lords: but one Lord.
Thus we have one "eternal", one "incomprehensible", one "uncreated", one "God", and finally one "Lord". The question at hand is why did the creed pick out those specific features to explicitly specify oneness, but yet not any other feature of property of divinity. Why doesn't, for example, the creed say, "The Father is loving, the Son is loving, and the Holy Ghost is loving, but there are not three loves but one Love" or "The Father is all knowing, the Son is all knowing, and the Holy Ghost is all knowing, but there are not three all knowings but one all knowing"?
A hypothesis here would be that the creed is trying to emphasise the unity of divinity and "eternal", "uncreated", and "incomprehensible" are, in some manner of speaking, exclusively core to divinity in a way in which knowing or loving is not, they are, for the lack of a better word, the epitome of "transcendentals" properties. Thus, human beings can know, love, etc, etc, but eternality, being incomprehensible, and uncreated are categorically excluded from humanity or creaturely stuff. Thus, to constitute one divine, it is sufficient that they be one in eternality, uncreatedness, and incomprehensibility. To use their language, those are properly part of the one "divine substance".
As such, if this hypothesis is correct, then what is significant would be the properties it does not single out for saying that there is only one. As such, we can speak of there being three wisdoms, three omniscients, three omnibenevolence, etc. The text of the Athanasian creed would itself be compatible with social trinitarianism or each person of the trinity having its own will because it does not identify what properties properly belong to the divine substance as opposed to the persons, save for the three features above.
Second, I would like to look at this rather curious phrase concerning the unity of Christ's humanity and divinity:
For the right Faith is that we believe and confess: that our Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, is God and Man;
God, of the Substance of the Father, begotten before the worlds: and Man, of the Substance of his Mother, born in the world;
Perfect God, and Perfect Man: of a reasonable soul and human flesh subsisting;
Equal to the Father, as touching his Godhead: and inferior to the Father, as touching his Manhood.
Who although he be God and Man: yet he is not two, but one Christ;
One, not by conversion of the Godhead into flesh: but by taking of the Manhood into God;
One altogether, not by confusion of Substance: but by unity of Person.
For as the reasonable soul and flesh is one man: so God and Man is one Christ.
I wish in particular to focus on this last line: "For as the reasonable soul and flesh is one man: so God and Man is one Christ." This appears to be the literary form of a simile, "For as the heaven is high above the earth, so great is his mercy toward them that fear him." (Psalm 103:11)
Yet how far can we take this simile? If there is to be a strict comparison between how the soul is related to the body of a man to how the divine Word is related to Christ's humanity, it would suggest a sort of demi or neo-apollinarianism. The soul after all is where the person's will is located, it is what controls the body even if a person's experience could be "distributed" throughout the body, does the divine Word occupy the human body in exactly the same way the soul occupies the body, the divine Word or Son of God being the will of the human body and controlling the body/humanity in exactly the same way the soul controls the body?
I think that would be an interesting question to explore, however, it does seem that the use of this simile would render a demi-semi-neo-apollinarianism an acceptable option.
Ultimately however, being Anglican means that curiously, as far as christology is concerned, one need only subscribe to the Athanasian creed and not the Chaledonian definition and any other post Nicene Christologies.
And as the 39 Articles state, the three creeds "ought thoroughly to be received and believed: for they may be proved by most certain warrants of holy Scripture", not because the Fathers were wise or whatever, thus the Bible supplies the context and premises for the creedal terms and not the Church Fathers.
0
0
11
Dominic Foo
Dec 29, 2023
In Philosophy and Humanities
While we tend to think of the moral person as a “person of principle”, there is a philosophical position known as “Moral Particularism” which argues that the moral life has little, if anything, to do with following “principles” in the sense of following rules or general precepts. I think an exploration into their arguments against moral principles would prove illuminating on the nature of biblical law even if one does not accept moral particularism as a positive thesis.
We can dismiss a trivial argument against moral principles, which isn’t employed by moral particularists, that is, the idea that there are always exceptions to a rule or principle. Whatever the rhetorical force of “hypocrisy” or inconsistency in applying the rules or principles via carve out exceptions or limitations, as a philosophical matter this isn’t the argument made by particularists. This because one could formulate rule-like principles which already codes these exceptions. E.g. freedom of speech except for speech which falsely attacks personally living persons is still sufficiently general in its characterisation. So this isn't the argument made by particularists.
The Holism of Reasons
The argument which particularists deploy is that whether the presence of a feature in a particular context is morally good or bad is contingent upon the particular context/circumstances itself. As such, that feature could be a reason why it is bad as it could be why it is good depending on the particular context. Completely opposite “principles” could be generated according to the circumstances.
For example, suppose the hedonist postulates that whatever is pleasurable is prima facie good unless it violates individual rights or something. Thus, if x is pleasurable, then x is good, unless it violates individual rights. Pleasurable -> good. This seems to be a good principle with a principled carved out exception. However consider the scenario where a sadist derives pleasure from the torture of others. The problem here isn’t merely that this falls under the excepted scenario, the problem here is that the pleasure itself is an evil, and a reason to judge this feeling an evil because it is derived from the sufferings of other people.
It isn’t merely the case that the principle of “pleasure is good” has failed to apply or has been suspended, because the case of sadism falls under the exception of a person’s right not to be tortured (pleasure -/> good), it is the case that pleasure itself here is a reason to infer that it is an evil instead (thus pleasure in suffering -> evil). Thus, it is the pleasure which makes it evil, not merely that pleasure fails to make it good due to the exceptions.
Here’s another example from epistemology: Suppose there was a principle that prima facie whatever seems red is red. Of course one can draw exceptions to the rule by saying, unless it is not under standard lighting, etc (Seems red -> red). However, suppose a person suffers from some sort of inverted qualia, that is, in their vision blue objects appear red and vice-versa, then it isn’t merely that the principle has “failed to apply” and the principle is suspended, it is that things which “seems red” is now a reason to infer that it is blue instead (Seems red -> blue, not merely seems red -/> red). Thus, you can generate completely opposite principles, e.g. whatever seems red is blue, depending on the circumstances.
Moral particularists call this the “holism of reasons”, that is, to draw moral inferences on a particular context requires one to appreciate the particular circumstances at work as a whole. The particular features and circumstances in context can serve as reasons for a moral conclusion, but these reasons are not “principles” which can be applied outside of the very particular circumstances in which they arise. In short, the particular circumstances/context is prior to the formulation of reasons for generating moral conclusions. There are no overarching “principles” which applies to particular contexts or circumstances, rather particular circumstances give rise to reasons.
Rules as "Rules of Thumb"
Shifting gears, I would like to discuss here the uses and functions of “rules” and “principles” if they are not to have a “governing” or “imperative” role in the moral life. John Rawls had a pretty interesting paper, Two Concepts of Rules where as a lemma to his thesis he discusses at some length the distinction between justifying a rule, system, or general practice, and justifying an individual action falling under the rule/practice. The example he uses here is that of punishment, suppose you ask, why do we punish people? You could give the following reasons for justifying the practice of punishment in general, e.g. deterrence, retribution, communicative, etc. But suppose now you ask, why was Jack punished? You normally don’t justify Jack’s punishment by appeal to reasons which justifies punishments in general, you don’t say that Jack was punished to deter future recalcitrant, you say things like, Jack was punished because he was found guilty in a court of law for breaking this or that law, etc. Thus, there is a difference between justifying a rule/practice in general and justifying actions falling under that practice/rule.
From here he develops two concept of rules: there are rules itself as a system or institution in the general, to be justified in general terms because of the intrinsic value or meaning of the institution, and then there are what he calls “rules of thumb”, or a “summary” conception of rules, that is, the rules are merely a generalisation of inferences in a large sample of particular cases. Thus, if you infer that a is wrong in w case, a is wrong in x case, a is wrong in y case, etc, then you can “summarise” your conclusions into a general “rule of thumb”: a is wrong. However, unlike the “institutional” understand of rules, the “rule” here is entirely parasitic and derived from conclusions in particular cases, it isn’t a “governing” conception, the rules do not stand over and above the particular cases to be “applied” to them.
We are now in a position to discuss briefly the nature of biblical law. We are constantly told that the term “torah” is better translated as “teachings” rather than what we mean by “law” today. Thus, it makes sense to see the “torah” as a body of “rules of thumb”, which contains many cases as a convenient summary and heuristic for generating moral conclusions in particular cases, as such they are more like a pedagogical aid in instruction on wisdom rather than rules which “govern” us. However as the unfolding of Bible and Jesus makes clear, there are cases where “law breaking” can be justified, that one can “break the law” and be innocent. In the end, we are to be governed by the will of God which prescribes the ends and objectives which determines the right course of action in particular cases, rules do not govern but the will of God and his ordained will do. God has conveniently formulated and summarised his wisdom concerning humanity in the forms of general rules and case illustrations, but they do not “govern” us.
Ultimately, as Christians we are called to obey a person, God, we are not called to be subject or be ruled by inanimate objects like “the law” or by “principles”.
0
0
13
Dominic Foo
Dec 28, 2023
In Christian Theology
And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit on all flesh; your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, and your young men shall see visions. Even upon the menservants and maidservants in those days, I will pour out my spirit.
Joel 2:28-29
Instead of the usual cessationist arguments against contemporary charismatic gifts, e.g. arguments of the form that it is no longer needed with once the apostles had established the churches, I think it may be safer to make a mass democratisation argument instead.
What I mean is this: Presumably the ability to "prophesise" e.g. speak and hear God's Word and the ability to petition for miracles, used to be monopolised by those specially gifted like the apostles and those they blessed or laid their hands on. Thus in the beginning of the Church, the founders of the Church had a monopoly on such gifts to put it on a sure foundation.
But once the apostles passed, then as per Joel prophecy, the Spirit continues to expand to more and more people, the apostolic legacy is already secured. Thus the Spirit is poured on everyone, and all baptised Christians have access to the Holy Spirit to be able to hear and speak God’s word to each other (prophesy) and petition for miracles before the throne of grace.
It seems safer as such to ground the passing of prophets and miracle workers, as well as ostensible miraculous act, on Joel's prophecy of a mass democratisation, that everyone now has access to it and we shouldn't be looking to special men or women for the same, than to just attempt to rationalise their cessation after the fact with post apostolic rationalisation.
0
0
34
Dominic Foo
Dec 27, 2023
In Philosophy and Humanities
With the rise of highly advanced imaging technology and A.I., there are now “deep fakes” of images and even hyperrealistic videos. Some of the more disturbing applications of these fake nudes of person, where a head or face is realistically imprinted unto a nude body, and being spread around.
I want to use this idea as a launching point to discuss some very fundamental epistemological issues, which has fundamentally to do with the pre-modern and modern epistemology divide.
I discussed this a very long time ago on my previous profile, but premodern epistemology is primarily focused on being a certain kind of person who is “in tuned to reality”, “knowing” was primarily about character and being a kind of person. If we take the platonic image as the paradigm case, the wise man is not he who accumulates masses and masses of information, but he who, true ascetic practices, self-control, discernment, and contemplation, transcends the world of appearances to discern the forms. Even though Aristotelian epistemology would place more emphasis on empirical knowledge for forming the appropriate knowledge character, pre-modern epistemology was very much focused on *who* is doing the knowing rather than *what* you know.
The transition to modern epistemology can be characterised by the shift from knowing as being a certain kind of person to knowing as grasping external objects “behind the veil of appearance” as it were. It is about factual and informational mastery, *what* stuff out there in the real world you know, rather than what kind of person you are. Descartes, “I think therefore I am” turns knowledge of the self as an object of knowledge, the thought itself is an object of contemplation, by knowing the thought, he knows that I am. It is not about epistemic virtues or character. Today the expert’s “moral character” is secondary compared to *what* he knows and whether his field of expertise itself is relevant to the topic at hand, it is the masses of information and facts itself concerning the relevant part of reality which determines knowledge, and not the moral character of the knower.
The best way to understand this is via the law of evidence and how it has changed from the premodern to modern period. Consider Christ’s injunction that if your brother sins and you confront him, and if he refuses to repent, take two or three other “witnesses” to confront him with his sin. Here’s the question: what are they witnessing to? Are they witnesses to the brother’s sinning in the sense that they saw them with their own eyes doing the deed? It’s not often that one has actual eyewitnesses to crime. They are clearly not “eyewitnesses” or source of knowledge in the modern scientific sense of having personally seen the man do the deed themselves. Rather, they are “witnesses” in the sense of being willing to stake *themselves*, by oath and sworn testimony, to condemn a person as a sinner and risk being condemned themselves if they were found to be lying. It is a knowledge based on their personal character and willing to “put skin in the game”. We can trust and rely on this “witness” and testimony because of a sort of “law and economics” logic based on their personal incentives and motivations to tell the truth. In English law until the 17th century there used to be a defence known as “compurgation” or a “wager of law”, where if you can get 12 friends/neighbours to take an oath or swear to your innocence, that’s a valid defence. This isn’t them swearing that you were with them when the crime was committed, this is just straight up: trust me, he’s innocent, I know this guy, because I am willing to be punished if you found that I am lying.
This sort of knowledge, which comes from trusting persons, is very different from the sort of modern scientific enquiry today. In evaluating eyewitness testimony today, while the “trustworthiness” is still part of the equation, but we focus a lot more on, did you see the witness in the day or night? How’s your eyesight? Isn’t the person you saw too far to see or make out clearly? We’re focused, not on the character of the person, but the external reality and situation itself and what sort of facts or information it can convey to us. Again, the transition from premodern to modern epistemology can be characterised by a shift from focusing on character of the knower as a source of knowledge, to focusing on the thing or external realities itself which we grasp or master.
So to bring it back to the title, in the era of deep fakes, edited images, even hyperrealistic A.I. generated videos, it seems apt to revisit this fundamental epistemic question again: is it a *who* or a *what* upon which you base your source of knowledge? If you see a video on twitter, fundamentally do you check first *who* sent it, and then based on the *who* tweeted it, believe or reject it, or do you try looking at the video itself to determine if its video itself makes sense and whether it fits with your knowledge of “reality”?
Maybe to go back to my postmodern theme, maybe all reality, and all knowledge, in the end is subjective, it’s *somebody* and some subject all the way down, there are no objective “facts” out there for your “lying eyes”, and at the bottom you need to trust *somebody* for what you can even see with your own eyes in this world, and that somebody is the Creator of this world and of your eyes.
0
0
27
Dominic Foo
Admin
More actions
bottom of page